All MCQs OBGYN collected 1
1. All the following characteristics are applied to a pelvis favorable to vaginal delivery EXCEPT:
A. Sacral promontory can not be felt.
B. Obstetric conjugate is less than 10 cm. √
C. Ischial spines are not prominent.
D. Subpubic arch accepts 2 fingers.
E. Intertuberous diameter accepts 4 knuckles on pelvic exam.
2. Complications related to preeclampsia include all the following EXCEPT:
A. Premature delivery.
B. Placental abruption.
C. Renal failure.
D. DIC
E. Polycythemia. √
3. The followings are considered normal symptoms of pregnancy EXCEPT:
A. Backache due to an increased lumbar lordosis.
B. Lower abdominal pain and groin pain due to stretch of round ligaments.
C. Visual disturbance. √
D. Calf pain due to muscle spasm.
E. Increased vaginal discharge.
4. Fetal assessment for IUGR includes all the followings EXCEPT:
A. Non stress test.
B. Biophysical profile.
C. Doppler.
D. Ultrasound for anomalies.
E. Fetal scalp blood sampling. √
5. Bishop score includes all the followings EXCEPT:
A. Dilation of the cervix.
B. Position of the cervix.
C. The presenting part of the fetus.
D. Length of the cervix. √
E. Consistency of the cervix.
6. Which of the followings is a contraindication to a trial of labor after cesarean delivery?
A. Prior classical incision. √
B. Prior cesarean delivery for dystocia.
C. Prior IUFD.
D. Ultrasound estimation of fetal weight of 3500g.
E. Prior cesarean delivery for breech.
7. Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome:
A. The characteristic features include normal uterus and breast development, and ambiguous genitalia.
B. The karyotyping is 46XX.
C. They have normal female testosterone level.
D. Gonadectomy must be performed after puberty because of the increased risk of malignancy. √
E. Estrogen replacement therapy is not indicated because they have enough estrogens to produce breast development.
8. All of the following antihypertensives are considered safe for short term use in pregnancy EXCEPT:
A. Captopril. √
B. Methyldopa.
C. Hydralazine.
D. Nifedipine.
E. Labetalol.
9. Postmenopausal women:
A. Malignancy is the commonest cause of postmenopausal bleeding.
B. FSH and LH are characteristically low.
C. Fibroid uterus tends to grow bigger.
D. Hormonal replacement therapy increases the risk of breast cancer. √
E. Endometrium is characteristically thick on USS.
10. Which of the following is an indication for estrogen treatment?
A. Fibroid.
B. Threatened abortion.
C. Endometriosis.
D. Postmenopausal atrophic vaginitis. √
E. Induction of ovulation for anovulatory cycle.
11. The followings are causes of antepartum hemorrhage EXCEPT:
A. Abruptio placenta.
B. Placenta brevia.
C. Cervical polyp.
D. Vasa previa.
E. Rh isoimmunization. √
12. Postpartum hemorrhage can occur due to all the followings EXCEPT:
A. Fetal macrosomia.
B. Polyhydramnios.
C. Placenta brevia.
D. Abruptio placenta.
E. Postdate pregnancy. √
13. Indications for instrumental delivery include all the followings EXCEPT:
A. Prolonged second stage of labor.
B. Fetal distress.
C. Transverse lie. √
D. Breech presentation.
E. Maternal cardiac disease.
14. The peripheral tissues resistance to insulin in pregnant women is mediated by:
A. Human chorionic gonadotropin.
B. Human placental lactogen. √
C. Growth hormone.
D. Luteinizing hormone.
E. Follicle stimulating hormone.
15. The most common reason for postdate pregnancy is:
A. Inaccurate gestational age. √
B. Fetal anencephaly.
C. Oligohydramnios.
D. IUGR.
E. Advanced maternal age.
16. Lower abdominal pain and six weeks gestation:
A. Vaginal examination is contraindicated.
B. Right iliac fossa pain is diagnostic of appendicitis.
C. Placental abruption should be considered.
D. Could be gallstones.
E. USS has reliable diagnostic information. √
17. These are possible sites for endometriosis deposits EXCEPT:
A. Brain. √
B. Peritoneum.
C. Uterosacral ligaments.
D. Ovaries.
E. Scars.
18. These are possible symptoms caused by fibroids EXCEPT:
A. Pelvic pain.
B. Subfertility.
C. Pressure symptoms.
D. Deep vein thrombosis. √
E. Irregular vaginal bleeding.
19. Induction of ovulation agents:
A. Clomiphene citrate is an antiandrogen.
B. Clomiphene citrate is given by injection.
C. Gonadotropin is given orally.
D. Ultrasound scan is not needed with induction.
E. Causes multiple follicles. √
20. The differential diagnosis of vulvar swelling includes all the followings EXCEPT:
A. Bartholin's cyst.
B. Hematoma.
C. Condyloma.
D. Nabothian cyst. √
E. Papilloma.
21. Obstructed labor:
A. Diagnosed only when the cervix is fully dilated.
B. Usually predicted before the onset of labor.
C. More common in developed countries.
D. Mentoposterior position could be a cause. √
E. x-ray pelvimetry is essential to predict cephalopelvic disproportion in a
primigravida.
22. Which of the followings is an indication for induction of labor?
A. Placenta brevia.
B. Postterm gestation. √
C. Cord presentation.
D. Prior classical cesarean section.
E. Active genital herpes.
23. Rupture of membranes is suspected with all of the followings EXCEPT:
A. Positive Nitrazine test.
B. Positive Fern test.
C. Pooling of amniotic fluid on speculum examination.
D. Observing amniotic fluid drain through the cervix during speculum examination.
E. Contractions seen on the CTG. √
24. Management of a patient with threatened abortion includes all the followings EXCEPT:
A. Ultrasound.
B. Physical exam.
C. CBC.
D. Detailed menstrual history.
E. Immediate dilation and curettage. √
25. The terminology of pelvic inflammatory diseases indicates:
A. Infection of the vagina.
B. Infection of Bartholin's glands
C. Infection of Skene's glands.
D. Infection of the urinary bladder.
E. Endometritis and salpingo-oophoritis. √
26. Risk factors for shoulder dystocia include all the followings EXCEPT:
A. Maternal obesity.
B. Macrosomia.
C. Maternal diabetes.
D. Prolonged second stage of labor.
E. IUGR. √
27. In breech presentation:
A. Frank breech is the commonest type.
B. Brachial plexus injury is a recognized complication.
C. Prolapse of the umbilical cord can occur.
D. Fetal mortality is increased.
E. All of the above. √
28. While evaluating a 30-year-old woman for infertility, you diagnosed a bicornuate uterus. You explain that additional testing is necessary because of the woman's increased risk of congenital anomalies in which system?
A. Skeletal.
B. Hematopoietic.
C. Urinary. √
D. Central nervous.
E. Tracheoesophageal.
29. The presentation of Asherman's Syndrome typically involves:
A. Hypomenorrhea and amenorrhea. √
B. Galactorrhea.
C. Menorrhagia.
D. Metrorrhagia.
E. Dysmenorrhea.
30. A 48-year-woman who had two normal pregnancies 13 and 15 years ago presents with the complaint of amenorrhea for 7 months. She expresses the desire to become pregnant again. After exclusion of pregnancy, which of the following tests is next indicated in the evaluation of this patient's amenorrhea?
A. Hysterosalpingogram.
B. Endometrial biopsy.
C. Thyroid function test.
D. Testosterone and DHAS levels.
E. LH and FSH levels. √
31. In postterm pregnancy all the followings are true EXCEPT:
A. Associated with meconium stained liquor.
B. The fetus has long nails.
C. May results in oligohydramnios.
D. Associated with respiratory distress syndrome.
E. It is a gestational age beyond 43 weeks. √
32. The following statements about multiple pregnancy are true EXCEPT:
A. Its occurrence in West Africa.
B. Its incidence is increased by increased age and parity.
C. Twin to twin transfusion common in monochorionic twins.
D. Can be diagnosed by ultrasound only after 12 weeks. √
E. Associated with induction of ovulation.
33. Uterine cervix:
A. Is the portion of the uterus below the isthmus. √
B. External os lining is columnar epithelium.
C. The internal os is covered with stratified squamous epithelium.
D. Can be dilated with dilators without the need of anesthesia.
34. The test used to diagnose ovulation on day 21 in a 28 days menstrual cycle is:
A. Estrogen.
B. FSH.
C. Progestrone. √
D. LH.
E. Prolactin.
35. Polyhydramnios is commonly found with:
A. IUGR.
B. Placenta brevia.
C. Abruptio placenta.
D. Diabetes insipidus.
E. Diabetes mellitus. √
36. In the fetus:
A. The coronal suture lies between the two parietal bones.
B. The umbilical artery normally contains one artery and two veins.
C. Fetal lie describes the long axis of the fetus to the long axis of the mother. √
D. Entanglement of the umbilical cord is common in diamniotic twins.
E. The anterior fontanelle is usually closed by the time of labor.
37. In threatened abortion at 15 weeks gestation in a nulliparous patient:
A. Pain is characteristic.
B. The internal os is often opened.
C. Fainting is characteristic.
D. Vaginal bleeding is usually mild. √
E. Absence of fetal movements suggest non viability.
38. Which of the following terms best describes the pelvic type of small posterior saggital diameter, convergent sidewalls, prominent ischial spines, and narrow pubic arch?
A. Android. √
B. Gynecoid.
C. Anthropoid.
D. Platypelloid.
E. Mixed.
39. The reason of using antihypertensive treatment in pregnancy is to:
A. Reduce the placental blood flow.
B. Reduce the risk of CVA in the fetus.
C. Reduce the risk of CVA in the mother. √
D. Prevent hypertensive renal disease.
E. Prevent myocardial infarction.
40. Prerequisites for instrumental delivery include all the followings EXCEPT:
A. Cephalic presentation.
B. Engaged head.
C. Full dilation of the cervix.
D. Rupture of membranes.
E. The presence of epidural analgesia. √
41. The most common cause of uterus size-date disparity is:
A. Fetal macrosomia
B. Polyhydramnios.
C. Inaccurate last menstrual period. √
D. Multiple pregnancy.
E. Molar pregnancy.
42. Components of biophysical profile in addition to nonstress test include all the followings EXCEPT:
A. Fetal movement.
B. Placental thickness. √
C. Fetal tone.
D. Fetal breathing movement.
E. Amniotic fluid pocket depth.
43. Which of the following laboratory tests would be most suggestive of preeclampsia?
A. Elevated bilirubin.
B. Decreased hematocrit.
C. Elevated lactate dehydrogenase (LDH).
D. Elevated uric acid. √
E. Elevated creatinine.
44. Ultrasound in the first trimester of pregnancy is mainly used to:
A. Localize the placenta.
B. Check for fetal well being.
C. Date the pregnancy. √
D. Check the placental blood flow.
E. Estimate the fetal weight.
45. The second stage of labor involves:
A. Separation of the placenta.
B. Effacement of the cervix.
C. Expulsion of the placenta.
D. Dilation of the cervix.
E. Expulsion of the fetus. √
46. Which of the followings is a known complication of diabetes in pregnancy?
A. Fetal microsomia (small baby).
B. Oligohydramnios.
C. Iron deficiency anemia.
D. Fungal infection. √
E. Placenta previa.
47. Regarding gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM):
A. It is the most common cause of IUGR.
B. The best screening test is random blood sugar.
C. The diagnostic test is glucose tolerance test (GTT). √
D. All patients should be treated by insulin, as diet alone is not enough.
E. All patients should be delivered before term to avoid complications.
48. Diabetes in pregnancy can cause all the following congenital anomalies EXCEPT:
A. Sacral agenesis.
B. Central nervous system abnormalities.
C. Lower limb hypoplasia.
D. Congenital heart disease.
E. Yellow teeth discoloration. √
49. Regarding threatened abortion:
A. Anti-D should be given to Rh- positive mother.
B. All patients should be admitted to the hospital.
C. Ultrasound should be done to confirm the diagnosis. √
D. Vaginal examination will reveal severe pain.
E. The patient has vaginal bleeding and tissue passage per vagina.
50. Regarding missed abortion, all of the followings are correct EXCEPT:
A. The patient may present with loss of pregnancy symptoms.
B. Per vaginal bleeding may be one of the presenting symptoms.
C. Immediate evacuation should be done once the diagnosis is made. √
D. DIC may occur as a sequela.
E. Ultrasound should be done to confirm the diagnosis.
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