1. Sure sign of pregnancy is:
A. Amenorrhea
B. Hegar's sign
C. Nausea and vomiting
D. Auscultation of fetal heart
E. Abdominal distension
2. The following statement are all TRUE about vomiting in pregnancy, EXCEPT:
A. May be cured by admission to hospital
B. Is commonest in the third trimester
C. Associated with multiple pregnancy
D. Is associated with trophoblastic disease
E. Is associated with urinary tract infection
3. First trimester pregnancy may be terminated by
A. Prostaglandin inhibitor
B. Anti-progesterone
C. Beta sympathomimetic agonist
D. Synthetic estrogen
E. Medroxy-progesterone
4. The heart rate of a normal fetus at term:
A. 80-100 bpm.
B. 100-120 bpm.
C. 120-160 bpm.
D. 160-180 bpm.
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E. There is no baseline heart rate.
5. APGAR's score includes all the followings EXCEPT:
A. Skin color.
B. Muscle tone.
C. Blood pH.
D. Heart rate.
E. Respirations
6. In cases of androgen insensitivity syndrome the following findings are true EXCEPT:
A. The chromosomal sex is 46 XX
B. Scant or no pubic or axillary hair.
C. No uterus.
D. Normal female external genitalia.
E. Breast are usually well developed.
7. The normal sequence of pubertal changes in the female is:
A. Thelarche, Maximal growth velocity, menarche.
B. Maximal growth velocity, Thelarche, menarche.
C. Thelarche, menarche, maximal growth velocity.
D. Menarche, maximal growth velocity, Thelarche.
E. Menarche, body weight, Thelarche.
8. An unstable lie is related to all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Prematurity.
B. Grand multiparty.
C. Placenta previa.
D. Fundal fibroid.
E. Cervical fibroid.
9. What is the station where the presenting part is at the level of the ischialspines
A. -2 .
B. -1 .
C. 0 .
D. +1 .
E. +2 .
10. The normal cord pH is :
A. 6.1.
B. 6.2.
C. 7.0.
D. 7.1.
E. 7.2.
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11. All the following hormones are products of placental synthesis, EXCEPT :
A. HCG.
B. HPL.
C. Prolactin.
D. Progesterone.
E. Estriol.
12. All of these drugs can be used as tocolytic to stop labor, EXCEPT:
A. Salbutamol ventolin
B. Diazepam (valium)
C. Calcium channel blocker
D. Indomethacin non steroidal anti inflammatory drugs
E. Ritodrine (beta agonist).
13. Transplacental infection occur with all, EXCEPT:
A. Cytomegalovirus.
B. Toxoplasma
C. Rubella
D. Syphilis
E. Gonorrhea
14. The following has a recognized relation with spontaneous preterm labor:
A. Fetus with anencephaly
B. Oligohydromnios
C. Maternal hypothyroidism
D. Bacterial Vaginosis
E. Transverse lie of the fetus
15. Anti-D prophylaxis:
A. Should be given to all sensitized Rhesus negative women after delivery
B. Should be given to all Rhesus negative women after amniocentesis.
C. Should be given to all Rhesus positive women who give birth to Rhesus
negative babies.
D. Should be given to all women who's babies are Rhesus negative
E. Is contra-indicated during pregnancy if the women is Rhesus negative
16. Breech presentation: Which is true?
A. Constitutes 10% of all term deliveries
B. Common in post term labor
C. Vacuum extraction can be used when cervix is fully dilated
D. Forceps can be used for after coming head
E. External cephalic version is best performed between 32-34 weeks gestation.
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17. Causes of first trimester abortion
A. Chromosomal abnormalities
B. Cervical incompetence
C. Bicornuate uterus
D. Gestational hypertension
E. Pre-eclampsia
18. Fetal tachycardia could result from
A. Maternal febrile illness
B. Maternal hypothyroidism
C. Labetalol ingestion
D. Post maturity
E. Pethidine injection
19. Multiple pregnancy increases
A. In white people more than black
B. With advancing maternal age
C. With Bromocriptine use for infertility treatment
D. If first pregnancy
E. After ovarian diathermy for polycystic ovary syndrome
20. The most common cause of uterine size-date disproportion:
A. Fetal macrosomia
B. Polyhydramnios
C. Inaccurate last menstrual period date
D. Multiple pregnancy
E. Molar pregnancy.
21. Antepartum hemorrhage: Which is true?
A. Is any bleeding from the genital tract during any stage of pregnancy
B. Requires assessment by vaginal examination
C. May be caused by cervical carcinoma
D. Is always painless
E. All patients should be delivered by Caesarian Section
22. A 25-year-old primigravida with 8 weeks threatened abortion, ultrasound would
most likely reveal.
A. Thickened endometrium with no gestational sac
B. Feral heart motion in the adnexia
C. Empty gestational sac
D. Collapsed gestational sac
E. An intact gestational sac with fetal
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23. The most common cause of ectopic pregnancy is:
A. History of pelvic inflammatory disease
B. Congenital anomalies of the tube
C. Endometriosis
D. Tubal surgery
E. Previous sterilization
24. The most common etiology for spontaneous abortion of a recognized first
trimester gestation:
A. Chromosomal anomaly in 50-60% of gestations.
B. Chromosomal anomaly in 20-30% of gestations.
C. Maternal hypothyroidism.
D. Maternal Diabetes.
E. Progesterone deficiency.
25. The most common mass associated with amenorrhea in a reproductive age women
is:
A. Follicular cyst.
B. Corpus luteal cyst.
C. Benign cystic teratoma.
D. Leiomyoma.
E. Pregnancy.
26. Which of the following is contraindication for delivery using vacuum extraction?
A. Face presentation
B. Second twins in vertex presentation
C. post term pregnancy
D. Occipito transverse position
E. Chorioamnionitis
27. The risk of postpartum uterine atony is associated with:
A. Hypotension.
B. Epidural anesthesia.
C. Median episiotomy.
D. Twin pregnancy.
E. Labor associated with an active rate of change of 2.3 cm per hour.
28. Which of the following is an indication for induction of labor:
A. Placenta previa.
B. Post-term gestation.
C. Cord presentation.
D. Prior classical C-section.
E. Active genital herpes.
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29. In case of threatened abortion :
A. Fetal heart is present
B. Cervix is dilated
C. There is a history of passing tissue per vagina.
D. Patients needs immediate evacuation
E. No need to give anti-D for Rhesus negative mothers
30. The most common cause of ectopic pregnancy is:
A. History of pelvic inflammatory disease
B. Congenital anomalies of the tube
C. Endometriosis
D. Tubal surgery
E. Previous sterilization
31. Which of the followings is a contraindication to a trial of labor after cesarean
delivery?
A. Prior classical incision.
B. Prior cesarean delivery for dystocia.
C. Prior IUFD.
D. Ultrasound estimation of fetal weight of 3500g.
E. Prior cesarean delivery for breech.
32. The most common reason for postdate pregnancy is:
A. Inaccurate gestational age.
B. Fetal anencephaly.
C. Oligohydramnios.
D. IUGR.
E. Advanced maternal age.
33. You are called to the operating room to evaluate a pelvic mass in infant girl.
Laparoscopy shows a 3-cm cystic mass in the broad ligament between the fallopian
tube & the Ovarian hilum. You recommend:
A. Observation.
B. Cyst aspiration.
C. Cystectomy.
D. Adenxectomy.
E. Laparotomy.
34. Therapy in threatened abortion should include:
A. Progesterone IM
B. D & C
C. Prolonged bed rest
D. Restricted activity
E. Prostaglandin suppositories
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35. Which of the following is correct in the treatment of a case of threatened
abortion :
A. Bed rest
B. Oral stillbosterol
C. Curettage
D. Urgent admission to hospital
E. I.M Tranexamic acid
36. Which of the following neonatal morbidities is not related to forceps delivery?
A. Fractured skull
B. Sepsis
C. Nerve palsies
D. Cephalohematoma
E. Convulsion
37. Oxytocin in the Puerperium is associated with :
A. Involution of the uterus
B. Initiation of lactation
C. Resumption of menses
D. Sub-involution of the uterus
E. Post partum mastitis
38. Ergometrine to control post-partum hemorrhage :
A. Is contraindicated in patient with high blood pressure
B. It will not act on the smooth muscle of the blood vessels
C. Intravenous root is the only way to be given
D. It can be used for induction of labor
E. Is safe in cardiac patient
39. Inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis are not generally used for tocolysis because
they:
A. Are effective
B. Produce marked hypertension
C. May cause premature closure of the fetal ductus arteriosus
D. Are too expensive
E. Are associated with lactic acidosis
40. Which of the following is the most likely causes of a fever in a women on the
second day postpartum:
A. Pneumonia
B. Endometritis.
C. Mastitis
D. Cholycystitis
E. Thrombophlebitis
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41. A 25 primigravida with 8 weeks threatened abortion. The US would most likely
reveal :
A. Thickened endometrium with no gestational sac.
B. Fetal heart motion in the adnexia.
C. Empty gestational sac.
D. An intact gestational sac with fetal heart motion.
E. Collapsed gestational sac.
42. Regarding Submucous uterine fibroids all of the following are correct EXCEPT:
A. May become polypoidal.
B. Can become infected.
C. Frequently cause infertility.
D. Often present with menorrhagia.
E. Can be removed hysteroscopically.
43. In cases with premature rupture of membranes, all the following are acceptable in
the conservative management
A. Frequent vaginal examination to assess cervical dilatation
B. serial complete blood count to diagnose rising of WBC
C. Close monitoring of maternal vital signs
D. Ultrasound to assess fetal weight and amount of liquor
E. Monitoring of the fetus by doing cardiotocogram
44. Which of the following causes of polyhydramnios is more common:
A. Twin pregnancy.
B. Diabetes.
C. Hydrops fetalis.
D. Anencephaly.
E. Idiopathic.
45. Disseminated intravascular coagulation has a recognized association with:
A. IUFD
B. Multiple pregnancy
C. Iron deficiency
D. Diabetic mother
E. Prolonged bed rest
46. Gestational diabetes is associated with an increase risk of all the following,
EXCEPT:
A. Cesarean section
B. Shoulder dystocia
C. Fetal macrosomia
D. Intrauterine fetal death
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E. Intrauterine growth restriction
47. In eclampsia: Which is true?
A. Caesarean section must be carried out in all cases
B. Hypotensive drugs should not be used
C. Urinary output is increased
D. Antidiuretic drugs are essential in all cases
E. Ergometrine should be avoided in the third stage of labor
48. The most important reason to give antihypertensive drug for hypertension in
pregnancy is to decrease the:
A. Incidence of IUGR
B. Incidence of oligohydraminos
C. Incidence of fetal death
D. Incidence of placental abruption
E. Risk of maternal complications such as stroke
49. Early clinical evidence of magnesium sulfate toxicity would show:
A. Flushing
B. Diplopia
C. Decreased oxygen saturation
D. Loss of deep tendon reflexes
E. Headache
50. Side effects of β sympathomimetics include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. Tachycardia
B. Pulmonary oedema
C. Headache
D. Premature closure of ductus arteriosus
E. Palpitation
51. GDM is associated with an increased risk of all the following EXCEPT:
A. C-section.
B. Shoulder dystocia.
C. Fetal Macrosomia.
D. IUFD.
E. IUGR.
52. Sickle cell:
A. Diseases presents in a heterotype (SA).
B. Increases the risk of urinary tract infections.
53. Urge incontinence
A. Is due to pelvic anatomic defect.
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B. Patient loses small amount of urine.
C. Can be diagnosed with stress test.
D. Can be treated medically.
E. Can be treated surgically with sling
54. After menopause: Which is true?
A. There is increase in vaginal acidity
B. Gonadotropins secretion falls.
C. Recurrent vaginal bleeding should be investigated by endometrial biopsy.
D. Malignancy is the leading cause of post menopausal bleeding.
E. Bone mineral density increases.
55. Postulated mechanism of the IUCD include all of the following action EXCEPT:
A. Altered tubal motility
B. Altered endometrium
C. Altered cervical mucus
D. Cupper has spermicidal effect
E. inhibition of implantation
56. Which of the following factors predispose to genital prolapse:
A. Repeated LSCS
B. Multiparty
C. Pelvic inflammatory disease
D. Endometriosis
E. Repeated Candidiasis
57. Which of the following anesthetic technique will produce the greatest uterine
relaxation?
A. Spinal block.
B. Caudal.
C. Nitrous oxide.
D. Halothane.
E. Paracervical.
58. Regarding injectable progesterone contraception, all of the following is true,
EXCEPT:
A. Medroxyparogesterone acetate is the most commonly used
B. May cause irregular uterine bleeding
C. May cause amenorrhea.
D. Should not be given to lactating mother.
E. Does not carry a risk of venous thrombosis.
59. After menopause
A. There is increase vaginal acidity.
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B. Gonadotropins level falls.
C. There is increase in bone density.
D. The size of an existing fibroid increases.
E. Any post menopausal bleeding should be investigated by endometrial
sampling.
60. Menorrhagia is:
A. Intermittent irregular vaginal bleeding
B. Commonly presents as postmenopausal bleeding
C. Heavy menstrual cycle more than 80 ml
D. Infrequent spaced cycles every 45 days
E. The main presentation in case of Asherman Syndrome
61. All the followings can be transmitted sexually EXCEPT:
A. HIV.
B. Chlamydia.
C. Gonorrhea.
D. Vaginal Candidiasis.
62. Contraindication of OCP, EXCEPT:
A. IHD
B. Previous DVT
C. Previous CVA
D. Family Hx of Breast Carcinoma.
E. 35 Y, smokes >15 cigarette per day.
63. Feature characteristically associated with imperforated hymen in a 16 yearold girl
include :
A. Acute retention of the urine
B. Absence of secondary sexual characteristics.
C. Hirsutism.
D. Short stature.
E. Present with secondary amenorrhea.
64. The test used to diagnose ovulation on day 21 in a 28 days menstrual cycle is:
A. Estrogen.
B. FSH.
C. Progestrone.
D. LH.
E. Prolactin.
65. A contraceptive method that prevent transmission of STD is:
A. Condom.
B. OCP.
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C. IUCD.
D. Spermicide.
66. Postulated mechanism of action of IUD includes all the following, EXCEPT :
A. Alter the cervical mucous.
B. Alter the endometrium.
C. Inhibits fertilization.
D. Alter the tubal motility.
E. Inhibition of implantation.
67. Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to the use of COCP?
A. Varicose veins.
B. DM.
C. Seizure disorders.
D. Recent history of deep venous thrombosis.
E. Mild essential hypertension.
68. A 38 year old woman is seen for the evaluation of a swelling in her right vulva. She
has also noted pain in this area when walking and during coitus. On examination a
mildly tender flactuant mass was noticed just outside the introits in the right vulva.
What the most likely diagnosis ?
A. Bartholin's abscess.
B. Lymphogranuloma venerum.
C. Chancroid.
D. Vulva carcinoma.
E. Herpes infection.
69. What is the association of ovulation induction for fertility and multiple births ?
A. Decreases the incidence multiple pregnancy.
B. Increases the incidence multiple pregnancy.
C. Increases the incidence of only dizygotic twins.
D. Doesn't affect the incidence of twins.
MCQs from Deema:
70. case about pregnant lady came with brupto placenta + fetal death
induction of labor
71. case of 37 week pregnant woman came with severe bleeding + ultrasound showed
no placenta previa
c - section
72. all these infection came with abnormality to the fetus except :
HIV
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73. organogenesis complete in week :
I don't know
74. about fetal circulation :
the highest oxygenation blood goes to the upper part & brain
75. the nerve that doesn’t innervate the vulva:
I’m not sure but i choose the nerve in the thigh - the other option was heamorroidal
76. predispose factor for uterine prolapse:
obesity
77. dysfunctional uterine bleeding which one is correct:
extreme age are the most affected
78. complete molar pregnancy:
46 xx paternal source only
79. hystosalpingogram:
I’m not sure I choose that it's measure the functional lf the tube but when I asked
the doctor about it he said it just shows the anatomy not the function
so I guess the answer is it used to diagnose the uterine adhesion
80. In the development of the embryo the true is:
spiral artery are found in the endometrium
81. about the physiology of pregnancy:
decrease urea in the serum
82. all of the following comes with separation of the placenta except:
fundus still high
83. we induce labor in:
post date pregnancy
84. amniotic volume:
could be predictable by ultrasound
85. Monozygotic pregnancy:
can be conjoined
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86. fibroid:
can associates with malpresentation
87. fibroid:
most of the patient only conservative management
88. gestational trophoplastic come with all except:
cervical dysplasia
89. about head engagement:
I’m not sure I choose that it's happen in multigravida faster than the primagravida
90. 30 week pregnant woman with breech presentation. How to manage?
ignore her
91. progesteron injection all correct except:
we don't give it to woman who is lactating
92. drug that alter the OCP mechanism:
anticonvulsant
93. absolute indication for c- section:
previous classical c-section
94. primary amenorrhea:
mullerian agenesis
95. androgen insensitivity:
breast well developed
96. all can be complication in using the forceps except:
sepsis
97. hypothalamic releasing hormone:
I don't know choose that it’s a glycoprotein
98. nonimmuno hydrops include all the following except:
I don't remember
99. low dose of heparin to a lady who is going to major surgery:
I don't remember also
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