All MCQs OBGYN collected 11

 1. Early deceleration:

A. Associated with unengaged head of the fetus

B. associated usually with brain asphyxia

C. a decrease in fetal heart beat that peaks after peak of uterine contraction

D. indication of C- section

E. result from increased vagal tone secondary to head compression

2. Climacteric symptoms all accept:

A. Flashes go away after 1 month

3. Postmenopausal changes include all except:

A. Increase vaginal acidity

B. vaginal dystrophy

C. night sweats

D. Mood disturbance.

4. Most cause of maternal mortality in KSA is:

A. Thromboembolism.

B. uterine hemorrhage.

C. Septic.

D. Cardiac disease.

5. OCPs are absolute contraindication in which of the following :

A. recurrent thromboembolis

B. migrane headache

C. hypertension

6. dermoid cyst :

A. a germ cell tumor

B. are 20% malignant

7. all are epithelial cell tumor except :

A. granulose cell tumor

B. endometiod tumor

C. Serous tumor

D. clear cell tumor

E. muscinous tumor

8. Candidacies is associated with:

A. DM


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9. Poor prognosis of gestational trophoplastic neoplasms is :

A. less than 35 y/O

B. no previous chemotherapy

C. previous term pregnancy

D. short nterval after pregnancy

10. Heavy, painful, regular cycles are with:

A. adenomyosis

B. dysfunctional uterine bleeding

C. PCO.

11. endometriosis all true except :

A. often asymptomatic

B. have a vaginal discharge

C. Is associated with infertility

12. Which is a gonadotropin :

A. FSH

B. estrogen

C. oxytocin

D. progesterone

E. Estradiol

13. 26 y/o women complaining of amenoriah and increased FSH and LH , what is the most

probable diagnosis?

A. Premature ovarian Failure

B. Sheehan syndrome

C. Asherman syndrome

D. Imperforated hymen

E. Pituitary adenoma

14. A 16 years old girl with a pelvic mass, all the following investigation should be done

EXCEPT: *not sure of the History*

A. US

B. Hormonal profile

C. PAP smear

D. MRI

15. Induction of ovulation could cause :

A. hyperstimulation ov. Syndrome

16. Regarding puerperium:

A. fever and engorged of breasts in second day after delivery

B. post partum depression is 50%

C. uterine fundus should not be palpable abdomenally in 14 w PP

17. All are skin changes in pregnancy except:

A. hyperpigmentation

B. linea nigra

C. spider vavi

D. ..... eruption in pregnancy

18. Asymmetris IUGR are correct except :

A. Smaller abdomen

B. Always end by c-section

19. Obstructive labor :

A. May be caused by malpresentation of baby

B. X – primetry is necessary in primagravida

20. All causes large uterus except :

A. polyhydramnios

B. Fibroid

C. Transverse lei of the baby

D. Multiple pregnancy

21. The second stage of labor:

A. Separation of the placenta.

B. Effacement of the cervix.

C. Expulsion of the placenta.

D. Dilation of the cervix.

E. End by delivery of the baby

22. It is not given a trial for labor after a c-section of:

A. Classical incision

23. What is true about turner syndrome:

A. streak ovaries

B. phenotypically male

24. Causes of Ammenorrhea, except:

A. Sikle cell triat

25. fallopian tube are:

A. Have an isthmus which is located distaly.

B. derived from mullarian duct

C. Is lined by squemaous epitheliem.

26. All happens in preeclamplsia except :

A. seizures


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27. Happens in pregnancy:

A. decrease iodine

B. decrease globulin

C. Increase free T3

D. Increase free T4

28. We usually do c – section rather than expectant management in premature rupture in:

A. No chorioamnionitis

B. placenta abruption

C. If the patient was 35 weeks

29. All are true about pyelonephritis except:

A. We always treat by deleivery

B. Usually is proceeded by asymptomatic bacteririts

C. May need hospitalization and IV antibiotics

30. Cervical cancer – exceed to parametrium but not the pelvis wall, which stage is it?

A. IIB

31. Molar pregnancy –> evacuation???

32. All are involved in menestration except:

A. hypothalamus

B. Ovaries

C. Endometrium

D. Posterior pituitary

33. Women who had Chlamydia infection 3 years back is now complaining of infertility,

which is the most likely cause?

A. Tubal factor

B. Anovulation

34. Anovulation in all except:

A. obesity

B. PCO

35. Urinary retention in all except:

A. uterovaginal fistula

B. after surgery to fix urine incontinence

36. Which is true about eclampsa:

A. Ergometrine is used in 3rd stage of labor

B. always do a c- section

37. A women having seizures you do US to see all except:

A. Fetal heart tone


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B. Fetal growth

38. What is the medication used in eclampsia

A. MgSO4

39. In insulin dependent diabetes mellitus:

A. IUGR

40. Diagnostic test of GDM is:

A. Glucose tolerance test

41. Alpha-fetoprotein is increased in all except:

A. trisomy

B. IUFD

C. Multiple pregnancy

D. nural tub defect and duodenal atrasia

42. Increase in hCG in :

A. Multiple pregnancy

B. Ectopic pregnancy

43. Grand multiparity is a risk of all of the following except:

A. Uterine rupture

B. Preeclampsia

C. DM

D. PPH

44. Regarding anemia:

A. The most common cause is iron defency anemia

45. A women is pregnant now, she had lost 3 fetuses in (2 at age 32 and one at age of 18

weeks of gestation:

A. G4 P2+1

B. G4 P3+0

C. G4 P0+3

D. P2+1

E. P1+2

46. Infertility:

A. You give rubella before stating the treatment

B. 5% of couples

C. Female factor is the main cause of 2ry infertility

47. Hyperplasia of the endometrium comes with which type of tumor:

A. Granulose cell tumor


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48. IUGR may be caused by all except :

A. obesity

49. Methotrexate Treatment in ectopic is contraindicated if:

A. β-hCG < 1500

B. No fetal heart.

C. Hemoperitonium

D. Gestational sac < 3 cm

50. 2

nd trimester hyperemesis is caused by all except:

A. Ectopic pregnancy

B. Gastritis

C. cholistitis

51. All are chromosomal abnormalities except:

A. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia

52. Which is the pathophysiology in PET:

A. Increase uric acid

53. HELLP Syndrome includes all the followings EXCEPT:

A. Increased LDH

B. Increased AST.

C. Increased platelets.

D. Increased ALT.

54. All causes PPH except:

A. IUGR

B. Multiple pregnancy

55. Which occurs in breech presentation when vaginaly Delivery:

A. Cord avultion

B. head compartment

56. Complications of D&C:

A. Asherman syndrome

57. The largest diameter in fetal head is:

A. mentovertical

58. Postpartum women with PPH and can not lactate her baby:

A. Sheehan syndrome

59. Feature of Preterm all except:

A. hyperthermic


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60. In prenatal infection:

A. Rubella can be prevented by administration of rubella vaccine during pregnancy.

B. Toxoplasma is a virus.

C. HIV virus infects the baby more readily when delivered vaginally than

cesarean section.

D. CMV causes macrosomic babies.

E. In HIV patients, breastfeeding is encouraged.

61. Which is right regarding procedures?

A. Colposcopy – T zone

62. Most common cause of PM bleeding is:

A. Atrophic vaginitis

63. When auscultating a pregnant women all could be herd except :

A. 3

rd heart sound

B. systolic murmur

C. diastolic murmur

64. With regards to contraception failure, the pearl index refers to:

A. Numbers of Pregnancies in years.

B. Number of pregnancies in 1 woman-year.

C. Number of pregnancies in 100 woman-year.

D. Number of pregnancies in 100 woman-years over pregnancy losses.

E. Number of Pregnancy losses in 100 woman-years.

65. In hydrops all except:

A. polycythemia

B. edema

C. asitis

66. Anti – D is given to all except:

A. External cephalic version

B. Threatened abortion

C. Already sensitized mom

D. Within 72 hours after delivery.

67. Kleihauer-Betke test is done for:

A. fetal blood in maternal blood

68. A pregnant lady already sensitized, you took an amniotic sample to see :

A. AB

B. Kleihauer-Betke test

C. triple test

D. spectophetometer


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69. All in urge incontinence except:

A. With stress on exercise

70. A women complaining of sudden desire to go to the bathroom and can’t stop it:

A. Urge incontinence

71. The diagnostic test in ectopic is:

A. US?

72. A 25-year-old primigravida with 8 weeks threatened abortion, ultrasound would most

likely reveal.

A. Thickened endometrium with no gestational sac

B. Feral heart motion in the adnexia

C. Empty gestational sac

D. Collapsed gestational sac

E. An intact gestational sac with fetal

73. Regarding missed abortion, all of the following are CORRECT, EXCEPT:

A. Patient may present with loss of the symptoms of pregnancy

B. Per vaginal bleeding may be one of the presenting symptom

C. Immediate evacuation should be done once the diagnosis is made

D. Disseminated intra-vascular coagulation may occur as a sequele of missed

abortion

E. Ultrasound should be done to confirm the diagnosis

74. Cervical incompetence:

A. Could happen from cone biopsy

75. All are features of malignant ovaries except:

A. Uniloclar

B. ascites

C. bilateral

D. solid content

E. capsule integrity is disrupted with projections

76. Screening is most effective in preventing which of the following cancers:

A. Vulva.

B. Cervix.

C. Endometrial.

D. Ovary.

E. Fallopian tube.

77. Occipito posterior presentation

78. Forceps complication all except


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79. Chronic pelvic pain except:

A. Endometriosis

B. Bartholine cyst

C. PID

D. Adhesions

80. The following are possible causes of Polyhydramnios, EXCEPT:

A. Diabetes

B. Multiple pregnancy

C. Fetus with hydrops fetalis

D. Fetus with duodenal atresia or neural tube defect

E. IUGR

81. Fetal tachycardia could result from

A. Maternal febrile illness

B. Maternal hypothyroidism

C. Labetaiol ingestion

D. Post maturity

E. Pethidine injection

82. OCP side effects:

A. GIT disturbance

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