All MCQs OBGYN collected 2 (with answer)

 51. Hyperextension of the fetal head is found in:

A. Vertex presentation.

B. Face presentation. √

C. Shoulder presentation.

D. Breech presentation.

E. Hydrocephalic baby.

52. Secondary amenorrhea is a recognized feature of:

A. Imperforated hymen.

B. Testicular feminization syndrome.

C. Pregnancy. √

D. Sickle cell anemia.

E. Mullerian agenesis.

53. Vacuum extraction (ventouse):

A. Causes more maternal birth canal injuries than the forceps.

B. Can be used when the cervix is 7 cm dilated.

C. Can be applied when the vertex is minus 2 station.

D. Can cause cephalohematoma to the baby. √

E. Can be used in face presentation.

54. In prenatal infection:

A. Rubella can be prevented by administration of rubella vaccine during pregnancy.

B. Toxoplasma is a virus.

C. HIV virus infects the baby more readily when delivered vaginally than cesarean section. √

D. CMV causes macrosomic babies.

E. In HIV patients, breastfeeding is encouraged.

55. In polycystic ovary syndrome patients, all the followings are true EXCEPT:

A. They are usually underweight with low body mass index. √

B. They have hirsutism.

C. They have oligomenorrhea.

D. They have high prolactin level.

E. They have subfertility.

56. All the following prenatal infections cause fetal anomalies EXCEPT:

A. HIV. √

B. Toxoplasmosis.

C. CMV.

D. Rubella.

E. Syphilis.

57. All the followings are indications of Rh-D administration EXCEPT:

A. Artificial rupture of membranes. √

B. Threatened abortion.

C. External cephalic version.

D. Cordocentesis.

58. Which of the following types of fibroid causes an excessive bleeding?

A. Cervical.

B. Broad ligament.

C. Submucosal. √

D. Subserosal.

E. Intramural.

59. HELLP Syndrome includes all the followings EXCEPT:

A. Hemolysis.

B. Increased AST.

C. Increased platelets. √

D. Increased ALT.

60. All the followings can be used as tocolytic agents EXCEPT:

A. Ritodrine (β agonist).

B. Salbutamol.

C. Diazepam. √

D. Indomethacin.

E. A Ca+ channel blocker.

61. A contraceptive method that prevent transmission of STD is:

A. Condom. √

B. OCP.

C. IUCD.

D. Spermicide.

62. Apgar's score includes all the followings EXCEPT:

A. Skin color.

B. Muscle tone.

C. Blood pH. √

D. Heart rate.

E. Respirations.

63. Development of the embryo in the early pregnancy is best measured by:

A. CRL. √

B. HC.

C. AC.

D. FL.

64. Causes of IUGR include all the followings EXCEPT:

A. Constitutional small mother. √

B. Fetal urinary tract anomalies.

C. Premature rupture of membranes.

D. Placental insufficiency.

65. All the followings can be transmitted sexually EXCEPT:

A. HIV.

B. Clamydia.

C. Gonorrhea.

D. Vaginal candidiasis. √

66. Development stage:

A. Testosterone is secreted by Sertoli cells.

B. Antimüllerian hormone is secreted by Leydig cells.

C. Antimüllerian hormone is responsible for involution of normal mullerian system.

67. All the followings are causes of preterm labor EXCEPT:

A. Multiparity. √

B. Placenta previa.

C. Polyhydramnios.

68. The drug of choice to prevent convulsions in eclampsia is:

A. Magnesium Sulfate. √

B. Hydralazine.

C. Labetalol.

69. Which is true?

A. Position – cephalic.

B. Station – level of ischial spines. √

C. Presentation – flexion.

70. PET:

A. MgSO4 is the drug of choice for eclamptic convulsions. √

B. Exaggerated knee jerk indicates MgSO4 toxicity.

71. Infertile couple:

A. Dysmenorrhea and dyspareunia are suggestive of endometriosis. √

B. Endometriosis is diagnosed by hysteroscopy.

72. Which of the followings is a contraindication for oxytocin infusion to induce labor?

A. Irregular first stage labor.

B. Transverse lie. √

73. Nuchal translucency is used is a marker used for:

A. NTD.

B. Trisomies. √

74. Menstruation:

A. Amount loss is 20-80ml. √

B. Contains shedding and fertilized ovum.

75. Sickle cell:

A. Diseases presents in a heterotype (SA).

B. Increases the risk of urinary tract infections. √

76. DIC has a known relation with:

A. IUFD. √

77. Ovulation induction complications include:

A. Ovarian hyperstimulation. √

78. A 26-year-old patient presented with secondary amenorrhea, and her FSH and LH

levels were high. Your most likely diagnosis is:

A. Premature ovarian failure. √

79. The most common presentation of twins is:

A. Cephalic – cephalic. √

B. Cephalic – breech.

C. Breech – cephalic.

D. Breech – breech.

80. The most common cause of infertility is:

A. Male factor. √

B. Tubal problems.

81. All the followings are predisposing factors of breech EXCEPT:

A. Uterine anomaly.

B. Hydrocephalus. √

C. Macrosomia.

82. All the followings are predisposing factors of breech EXCEPT:

A. Prematurity

B. Submucosal fibroid

C. Previous LSCS (lower segment C/S). √

83. Fetal hydrops:

A. Rh isoimmunization is the commonest cause of nonimmune hydrops.

B. Nonimmune hydrops is diagnosed when the fluid fills at least one visceral cavity.√

C. Nonimmune hydrops is treated with blood transfusion.

84. All the followings are causes of oligohydramnios EXCEPT:

A. Uterine anomalies

B. IUGR

C. Anencephaly

85. Expected date of delivery (EDD) is calculated by:

A. Naegele's rule

86. A 32-year-old woman with IUCD was found pregnant. On examination, IUCD

thread was protruding from the cervix. The next thing to do is:

A. Continue pregnancy

B. Remove IUCD

C. Remove IUCD and terminate pregnancy

87. Elevated α-fetoprotein is found in the followings EXCEPT:

A. Some ovarian cancers

B. Trisomy

C. Neural tube defects

88. Which of the followings can cause primary and secondary amenorrhea?

A. Anorexia nervosa

89. The karyotype of androgen insensitivity syndrome is:

A. 46 XY

B. 46 XX

C. 45 XO

90. All the followings are risk factors of cervical carcinoma EXCEPT:

A. Nulliparity

B. Smoking

91. All the followings are components of biophysical profile EXCEPT:

A. Fetal movement.

B. Fetal heart rate. √

C. Fetal tone.

D. Fetal breathing movement.

E. Amniotic fluid pocket depth.

92. In OCPs, all are true EXCEPT:

A. They prevent STDs

93. What is true regarding OCPs?

A. Cause menorrhagia

B. After discontinuation, may cause transient amenorrhea. √

C. Cause dysmenorrhea

94. Concerning GDM:

A. Causes delayed lung maturity compared to DM type I. √

B. Causes more congenital anomalies than DM type I.

C. The most common congenital anomaly is cleft lip.

95. Which one of the following perinatal tests is not routinely done?

A. Rubella.

B. HBV.

C. Toxoplasmosis. √

D. HIV.

E. Syphilis.

96. The following are used to treat endometriosis EXCEPT:

A. OCP

B. Progesterone pills

C. Danazol

D. Leuprolide

E. Estrogen

97. A 48-year-old, P6+0, presented with dysmenorrhea and deep dyspareunia. The most likely diagnosis is:

A. Leiomyoma.

B. Adenomyosis. √

C. DUB.

D. Endometrial cancer.

98. A 28-year-old woman presented with menorrhagia. All the followings are choices of treatment EXCEPT:

A. Hysterectomy.

99. Which test is done to measure the stored iron?

A. Transferrin level

B. Ferritin level

C. Hemoglobin level

100. Fetal heart beat is detectable by sonography at:

A. 5 weeks

B. 6 weeks

C. 7 weeks

D. 8 weeks

E. 9 weeks

101. According to WHO, a pregnant woman is considered anemic when her hemoglobin level is less than:

A. 8

B. 9

C. 10

D. 11

E. 12

102. A young patient feels pain two weeks before menses starts. This is called:

A. Dysmenorrhea.

B. Dyspareunia.

C. Mittelschmerz ovarian pain. √

103. Stress incontinence:

A. Results in voiding of large amount of urine.

B. Results in voiding of small amount of urine.

C. Related to detrusor instability.

104. A 16-year-old girl with an adnexal mass, all these investigations should be done EXCEPT:

A. USS

B. MRI

C. CT

D. Laparoscopy

105. Uterus:

A. Undergoes hyperplasia then hypertrophy with pregnancy

106. Fibroid:

A. Formed of fibrous tissue

B. Has a definite capsule. √

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