All MCQs OBGYN collected 4

 51. Regarding missed abortion, all of the followings are correct EXCEPT:

A. The patient may present with loss of pregnancy symptoms.

B. Per vaginal bleeding may be one of the presenting symptoms.

C. Immediate evacuation should be done once the diagnosis is made.

D. DIC may occur as a sequel.

E. Ultrasound should be done to confirm the diagnosis.

52. Hyperextension of the fetal head is found in:

A. Vertex presentation.

B. Face presentation.

C. Shoulder presentation.

D. Breech presentation.

E. Hydrocephalic baby.

53. All the followings can be used as tocolytic agents EXCEPT:

A. Ritodrine (β agonist).

B. Salbutamol inhaler .

C. Diazepam ( vallum )

D. Indomethacin.

E. A Ca+ channel blocker.

54. Causes of IUGR include all the followings EXCEPT:

A. Constitutional small mother.

B. Fetal urinary tract anomalies.

C. Premature rupture of membranes.

D. Placental insufficiency.

55. Mother with hepatitis B positive:

A. we give the baby both immunoglobulins and live attenuated vaccine when

born

56. Which of the following contraceptive methods should not be used by a patient

with coronary heart disease?

A. Combined oral contraceptive pills

B. Male condom

C. Female condom

D. Diaphragm

E. Spermicidal agent

57. Hirsutism can be found in all of the following conditions, EXCEPT:

A. Polycystic ovary syndrome

B. On danazol therapy

C. Adrenal hyperplasia

D. Patient on oral contraceptive pills

E. Androgen secreting ovarian tumor

58. In patient with bicornuate uterus when getting pregnant can get all these

complication, EXCEPT:

A. Polyhydramnios

B. Abortion

C. Preterm labor

D. Abnormal fetal lie

E. Retained placenta

59. A 26 years old lady presented with secondary amenorrhea and FSH and LH are

found to be high, your diagnosis will be?

A. Sheehan syndrome

B. Asherman syndrome

C. Premature ovarian failure

D. Imperforated hymen

E. Pituitary adenoma

60. Which is a contraindication of induction of labor

A. History of upper segment caesarian section

B. Sever P E T at 36 weeks

C. Gesta7onal diabetes on insulin at 39 weeks

D. Post term pregnancy

E. Chorioamnionitis

61. Regarding cervical incompetence, all of the following are true,

EXCEPT:

A. Typically causes painful abortions

B. Typically causes mid-trimester abortions

C. Is treated by Shirodkar suture (cervical cerclage) which is best

preformed early in the second trimester

D. May lead to premature rupture of the membrane

E. Can occur in patient with history of cone biopsy

62. A 16 year old girl with imporferated hymen present with:

A. Secondary Amenorrhia

B. Hematocolpous

63. A 20 year old lady pregnant in 1st trimester came complaining of lower abdominal

pain, in examination a mass continued with the uterus was found what is the

diagnosis:

A. Red degeneration of fibroid

B. Ectopic pregnancy

C. Uterine rupture

D. Rupture placenta

E. Placenta previa

64. All of the following causes oligohydrominas except:

A. Renal agenesis

B. Poor placental perfusion

C. Post term pregnancy

D. Anencephaly

E. Urinary obstruction

65. PCO, all true EXCEPT:

A. Hirsutism.

B. Imporforated hymen,

C. Infertility.

D. Acne.

E. Amenorrhea

67. In Gestational diabetes :

A. Fetal lung surfactant matures later (more late) than in a non diabetic mother.

B. More associated with congenital malformation than Insulin Dependant

Diabetes.

C. ??

D. ??

E. ??

68. Side effects of β sympathomimetics include all of the following, Except?

A. Tachycardia

B. Pulmonary oedema

C. Headache

D. Premature closure of ductus arteriosus

E. Palpitation

69. The most common congenital anamoly associated with diabetes is:

A. Congenital heart disease.

B. Neural tube defect.

C. Sacral agenesis.

D. Renal agenesis

E. Caudal regression

70. In cases with premature rupture of membranes, all the following

are acceptable in the conservative management except:

A. Frequent vaginal examination to assess cervical dilatation.

B. serial complete blood count to diagnose rising of WBC.

C. Close monitoring of maternal vital signs.

D. Ultrasound to assess fetal weight and amount of liquor.

E. Monitoring of the fetus by doing cardiotocogram.

71. Pateint complaining of dysmenorrhea and heavy menstrual bleeding what the

diagnosis :

A. endometriosis

B. fibroid

C. ?

D. ??

E. ??

72. All the following are possible causes of menorrhagia, EXCEPT

A. Uterine fibroid

B. Adenomyosis

C. Pelvic inflammatory disease

D. Endometrial hyperplasia

E. Combine oral contraceptive pills

73. At which week we can detect the first fetal heart (they add "we mean intravaginal

US":

A. 12

B. 6

C. 17

D. 18

E. 19

73. Therapeutic termination of early pregnancy is indicated in:

A. Uterine fibroid

B. Maternal pulmonary hypertension

C. Placenta previa

D. Maternal blood sugar >12 mmol/L

E. Triplet pregnancy

74. Criteria of severe preeclampsia include all Except:

A. Diastolic BP of 110 mmHg or more

B. Pro7enurea more than 5g/24 hours

C. Presence of epigastric pain

D. Decreased hematocrit

E. Oliguria

75. What is the associa0on of ovula0on induc0on for fer0lity and multiple births?

A. Decreased multiple pregnancy

B. Increased multiple pregnancy

C. Increased only dizygotic twins

D. Doesn’t affect the incidence of twins

76. The most antigen which would account for fetal hydrops is

A. C

B. D

C. Keu

D. Lewis

E. Duffy

78. Breast feeding:

A. Should be discontinued if breast infection is suspected

B. Should be started immediately in case of maternal HIV infection

C. Has a rule in involution of uterus

D. Should be replaced by bottle feeding if the patient had caesarean section

E. Contain adequate of iron

79. Physiological changes in the reproductive system include:

A. There is no changes in the vagina

B. The uterus first enlarge by hyperplasia then by hypertrophy

C. There is no change in the cervix

D. Estrogen has no role in any changes during pregnancy

E. Lower segment of the uterus will be formed in the first trimester

80. all are risk factors associated with macrosomia, except:

A. Prolonged pregnancy

B. Previous large infant

C. Short stature

D. GDM

E. Maternal obesity

81. Risk and complica0ons of induction of labor include all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Failed induction

B. Atonic PPH

C. Uterine hyperstimulation leading to fetal hypoxia

D. Prostaglandin may cause hypothermia due to its direct effect on thermo

regulatory centers in the brain

E. Rupture uterus in grandmultipara of patients with previous CS

82. The normal development sequance of puberty is :

A. Thelarche , adrenarch, growth, menarche.

B. Menarch, adrenarch, thelarche ,growth.

C. Growth. thelarche, adrenarch, menarche

D. Adrenarch , thelaeche, growth, menarche

E. Thelarche , menarche, adrenarche, growth.

83. 33 year female at 37 weeks gesta0on confirmed by early sonography presents with

moderate severe vaginal bleeding, she is noted to have placenta previa, which of the

following is the best management for her :

A. Induction of labor

B. CS

C. Expectant management

D. Artificial rupture of membrane

E. Give tocolytic drugs

84. Permanent steriliza0on includes all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Vasectomy

B. Tubal ligation

C. Mirena IUCD

D. Hysterectomy

E. Bilateral salpingectomy

89. The second stage of labor involve:

A. Separation of placenta

B. Effacement of the cervix

C. Expulsion of placenta

D. Expulsion of the fetus

E. Dilatation of the cervix

90. Bishop score include all except:

A. Station of fetal head

B. Cervical effacement

C. Cervical position

D. Cervical dilatation

E. Cervical length

91. The fetal heart rate of normal fetus in term is :

A. 80-100 bpm

B. 100-120 bpm

C. 120-160 bpm

D. 160-180 bpm

E. There is no baseline HR

92. Anti-D prophylaxis

A. Should be given to all sensitized Rhesus negative women after delivery

B. Should be given to all Rhesus negative women after amniocentesis

C. Should be given to all Rhesus positive women who give birth to Rhesus

negative babies.

D. Should be given to all women who's babies are Rhesus negative

E. Is contra-indicated during pregnancy if the women is Rhesus

Negative

93. The following are absolute contraindications to the combined oral contraceptive

pills

A. Varicose veins

B. Ischemic heart disease

C. history of DVT

D. Diabetes mellitus

E. Age above 35 years

94. Mul0ple pregnancy increases

A. In white people more than black

B. With advancing maternal age

C. With bromocriptine use for infertility treatment

D. If first pregnancy

E. After ovarian diathermy for polycystic ovary syndrome

95. The most common cause of uterine size – date disproportion

A. Fetal macrosomia

B. Polyhydramnios

C. Inaccurate last menstrual period date

D. Multiple pregnancy

E. Molar pregnancy

96. A 25-year-old primigravida with 8 weeks threatened abortion, ultrasound would

most likely reveal.

A. Thickened endometrium with no gestational sac

B. Feral heart motion in the adnexa

C. Empty gestational sac

D. Collapsed gestational sac

E. An intact gestational sac with fetal

97. The most common cause of ectopic pregnancy is:

A. History of pelvic inflammatory disease

B. Congenital anomalies of the tube

C. Endometriosis

D. Tubal surgery

E. Prnarcheevious sterilization

98. All these tests can be useful in management of intrauterine fetal growth restriction

IUGR except:

A. Fetal kick chart

B. Cardiotocography CTG non stress test

C. Chorionic villous sampling

D. Biophysical profile

E. Umbilical cord Doppler waveforms