1. Anti-D prophylaxis
A. Should be given to all sensitized Rhesus negative women after delivery
B. Should be given to all Rhesus negative women after amniocentesis
C. Should be given to all Rhesus positive women who give birth to Rhesus
negative babies.
D. Should be given to all women who's babies are Rhesus negative
E. Is contra-indicated during pregnancy if the women is Rhesus negative
2. Uterine fibroid: Which is true?
A. Is commoner in white people than black
B. All should be treated immediately
C. Sarcomatous change occurs in 1%
D. Can cause obstructed labor
E. In pregnancy should indicate caesarian section
3. After menopause: Which is true?
A. There is increase in vaginal acidity
B. Gonadotrophin secretion falls
C. Recurrent vaginal bleeding should be investigated by endometrial biopsy
D. Malignancy is the leading cause of post menopausal bleeding
E. Bone mineral density increases
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4. The combined contraceptive pills: Which is true?
A. Pre-dispose to pelvis inflammatory disease
B. Predispose to ovarian cyst
C. Predispose to benign breast cyst
D. Contra indicated in a patient with history of DVT
E. Failure rate is 2 per hundred woman years
5. The following are absolute contraindications to the combined oral contraceptive
pills
A. Varicose veins
B. Previous history of viral hepatitis
C. Prosthetic heart valve
D. Diabetes mellitus
E. Age above 35 years
6. In placenta previa: Which is true?
A. It is common primigravida
B. May cause abnormal lie
C. Causes recurrent painful bleeding
D. All patients should be induced with prostaglandin pessaries
E. Digital examination is mandatory to exclude local causes
7. Abruptio placenta: Which is true?
A. It is bleeding from abnormally situated placenta
B. Has minimum effect on the fetus
C. Causes painless bleeding
D. Can be a cause of post partum hemorrhage
E. All should deliver by caesarean section
8. Breech presentation: Which is true?
A. Constitutes 10% of all term deliveries
B. common in post term labor
C. Vacum extraction can be used when cervix is fully dilated
D. Forceps can be used for after coming head
E. External cephalic version is best performed between 32-34 weeks gestation.
9. Turner syndrome: Which is true?
A. Genetically is 46 X O
B. Has testis in inguinal area
C. Usually presents with primary amenorrohoea
D. Has low I.Q
E. Usually tall
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10. Androgen insensitivity syndrome: Which is true?
A. Genotype is 46 X X
B. Phenotype they are female but with ill developed breast
C. Usually have secondary amenorrhoea
D. They have testes that should be kept to produce hormones
E. They have no uterus
11. First trimester pregnancy may be terminated by
A. Prostaglandin inhibitor
B. Anti progesterone
C. Beta sympathomimetic agonist
D. Synthetic oestrogen
E. Medroxy progesterone
12. Patients with the following conditions present with primary amenorrhoea
A. Bicornuate uterus
B. Polycystic ovary syndrome
C. Imperforate hymen
D. Sheehan’s Syndrome
E. Anorexia nervosa
13. In fetal circulation
A. Oxygenated blood goes along the umbilical arteries
B. The fetal lung is bypassed by means of ductus venosus
C. The foramen ovale connects the two ventricles
D. Most of the blood entering the right atrium flows into the left atrium
E. The blood in the umbilical arteries is more oxygenated that blood in umbilical
vein
14. The following ultrasonic measurements may be used to confirm or establish
gestational age
A. Crown rump length
B. Nuchal pad thickening
C. Amniotic fluid volume
D. Yolk sac volume
E. Biophysical profile
15. During normal pregnancy: Which is true?
A. Estradiol is the principal circulating oestrogen
B. The blood pressure increases in first and second trimester
C. The tidal volume is reduced
D. The second half of pregnancy amniotic fluid is mostly contributed fetal urine
E. Maternal hydro ureters should be taken always as a serious pelvic condition
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16. The following conditions are aggravated by oral contraceptive pills
A. Hirsutisum
B. Endometriosis
C. Dysmenorrhoea
D. Pre-menstrual syndrome
E. Genital fungal infection
17. Intra uterine contraceptive device (IUCD)
A. Reduces pelvic inflammatory disease
B. Inhibits ovulation
C. Increases incidence of endometrial cancer
D. If pregnancy occurs there is increased risk of ectopic pregnancy
E. Failure rate is 0.1%
18. The following values of semen analysis indicates abnormal semen quality
A. Volume less than 2 ml
B. Count of 40 million / ml
C. Motility 60%
D. Abnormal form 40%
E. Liquefaction complete in 30 minutes
19. Which of the following is suggestive of ovulation:
A. Basal body temperature drop at least 0.5C in the second half of the cycle
B. Day 21 oestrogen level is elevated
C. Progesterone level on day ten of the cycle is elevated
D. Regular cycle with dysmenorrheal
E. Oligomenorrhoea
20. Causes of first trimester abortion
A. Chromosomal abnormalities
B. Cervical incompetence
C. Bicornuate uterus
D. Gestational hypertension
E. Pre-eclampsia
21. The following are always indications for Caesarean Section
A. Hydrocephalus
B. Abruptio placentae
C. Preterm Labor
D. Active primary genital herpes
E. Sever pre-eclamsea
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22. Obstructed labor: Which is true?
A. Diagnosis only when the cervix is fully dilated
B. Usually predicted before onset of labor
C. More common in developed countries
D. Mento posterior position could be a cause
E. X-ray pelvimetry is essential to predict cephalo-pelvic disproportion in
primigravida
23. Fetal tachycardia could result from
A. Maternal febrile illness
B. Maternal hypothyroidism
C. Labetaiol ingestion
D. Post maturity
E. Pethidine injection
24. Prolapse of umbilical cord: Which is true?
A. Not an indication for caesarean section when baby viable at 36 weeks
B. Diagnosed when membranes are still intact
C. Is more common when fetus acquires an abnormal lie
D. Incidence is 5%
E. Causes severe respiratory alkalosis
25. Regarding human fertility: Which is true?
A. Fertilization usually occurs 5-7 days before implantation and before the
extrusion of the second polar body
B. Subfertility only treated with IVF
C. An adverse male factor is detectable in 60% of couples with low fertility
D. Mumps in adulthood has no effect on male fertility
E. Oligo spermia means that sperm shape is abnormal
26. In eclampsia: Which is true?
A. Caesarean section must be carried out in all cases
B. Hypotensive drugs should not be used
C. Urinary output is increased
D. Antidiuretic drugs are essential in all cases
E. Ergometrine should be avoided in the third stage of labor
27. Multiple pregnancy increases
A. In white people more than black
B. With advancing maternal age
C. With bromocriptine use for infertility treatment
D. If first pregnancy
E. After ovarian diathermy for polycystic ovary syndrome
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28. In twin deliveries: Which is true?
A. The first twin is at greater risk than the second
B. They usually go post date
C. Epidural analgesia is best avoided
D. Commonest presentation is cephalic and second breach
E. There is increased risk of postpartum hemorrhage
29. Antepartum hemorrhage: Which is true?
A. Is any bleeding from the genital tract during any stage of pregnancy
B. Requires assessment by vaginal examination
C. May be caused by cervical carcinoma
D. Is always painless
E. All patients should be delivered by Caesarian Section
30. Polyhydramnios is associated with the following condition
A. Intrauterine growth restriction
B. Fetal kidney agenesis
C. Diabetes insipidus
D. Tracheo oesophageal fistula
E. Hind water leakage
31. All of the following associated with increase incidence of breech presentation,
EXCEPT:
A. Placenta previa
B. Mullerian anomaly
C. Uterine leiomyoma
D. Nulliparity
E. Prematurity
32. Components of biophysical profile include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. Fetal movement
B. Placental thickness
C. Fetal tone
D. Fetal breathing movement
E. Amniotic fluid volume assessment
33. Risk factors of post partum endometritis include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. Prolonged labor
B. Prolonged rupture of membranes
C. Multiple vaginal exams
D. Prolonged monitoring with an intrauterine pressure catheter
E. Gestational diabetes
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34. Gestational diabetes is associated with an increase risk of all the following,
EXCEPT:
A. Cesarean section
B. Shoulder dystocia
C. Fetal macrosomia
D. Intrauterine fetal death
E. Intrauterine growth restriction
35. Control of gestational diabetes is accomplished with the following, EXCEPT:
A. Insulin
B. Diet
C. Oral hypoglycemic agents
D. Exercise
E. Insulin and diet
36. Combined Oral Contraceptive Pills contain
A. A synthetic estrogen alone
B. A progestin alone
C. Both estrogen and progestin
D. Bromocryptin
E. Androgen
37. Mechanisms of Oral Contraceptive Pills include all of the following except:
A. Ovulation suppression
B. Enhanced ovarian androgen production
C. Altered cervical mucus
D. Altered endometrium
E. Altered tubal motility
38. Postulated mechanism of the IUCD include all of the following action EXCEPT:
A. Altered tubal motility
B. Altered endometrium
C. Altered cervical mucus
D. Cupper has spermicidal effect
E. inhibition of implantation
39. Antenatal booking investigations include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. Complete blood count
B. Blood sugar
C. Hepatitis screening
D. Toxoplasmosis
E. Thyroid function
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40. The most common cause of uterine size – date disproportion
A. Fetal macrosomia
B. Polyhydramnios
C. Inaccurate last menstrual period date
D. Multiple pregnancy
E. Molar pregnancy
41. Immediate appropriate response to an initial eclamptic seizure include of the
following, EXCEPT:
A. Ultrasound for fetal growth
B. Maintain adequate oxygenation
C. Administer maganesium sulphate
D. Prevent maternal injury
E. Monitor the fetal heart rate
42. The most important reason to give antihypertensive drug for hypertension in
pregnancy is to decrease the:
A. Incidence of IUGR
B. Incidence of oligohydramnios
C. Incidence of fetal death
D. Incidence of placental abruption
E. Risk of maternal complications such as stroke
43. Management of a patient with threatened abortion includes all of the following,
EXCEPT:
A. Ultrasound
B. Physical examination
C. CBC
D. Derailed menstrual history
E. Dilatation and curettage
44. A 25-year-old primigravida with 8 weeks threatened abortion, ultrasound would
most likely reveal.
A. Thickened endometrium with no gestational sac
B. Feral heart motion in the adnexa
C. Empty gestational sac
D. Collapsed gestational sac
E. An intact gestational sac with fetal
45. Acceptable managment of ruptured ectopic pregnancy
A. Observation followed by methotrexate
B. Diagnostic laparscopy followed by observation
C. Repeat ultrasound next 24 hours to confirm the diagnosis
D. Exploratory laparotomy and salpingectomy
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E. Dilatation and curettage
46. Infants of mother with gestational diabetes have an increased risk of the following,
EXCEPT:
A. Hypoglycemia
B. Hypo insulinemia
C. Hypocalcemia
D. Hyper bilirubine
E. Polycythemia
47. The best screening test for gestational diabetes
A. Fasting blood sugar
B. Random blood sugar
C. Glucose challenging test
D. Glucose tolerance test
E. Blood sugar series
48. Risk factors for pre- elcamsia include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. Elderly primigravida
B. African ethnicity
C. Positive family history of hypertension
D. Positive history of pre- elcampsia in previous pregnancies
E. Positive history of macrosomic baby
49. Early clinical evidence of magnesium sulfate toxicity would show
A. Flushing
B. Diplopia
C. Decreased oxygen saturation
D. Loss of deep tendon reflexes
E. Headache
50. Pre-eclampsia is associated with an increase risk of all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. Delivery of a small for gestational age infant
B. Placental abruptio
C. Pulmonary edema
D. Prolonged duration of labor
E. Cerebral vascular accident (CVA)
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