All MCQs OBGYN collected 6

 51. The volume of amniotic fluid is:

A. Is closely related to the fetal crown-rump length in the 3rd trimester of

Pregnancy

B. Maybe predicted by Ultrasound

C. Is reduced in sever rhesus disease

D. Increases following amniocentesis

All OB-GYN MCQs Second rearranged Edition 2011

238

E. Is increased in sever pre-eclampsia

52. Which of the following is known to be the commonest presentation in twins

A. Breech, cephalic

B. Cephalic, breech

C. Cephalic, cephalic

D. Breech, breech

E. Cephalic, transverse

53. The commonest cause for infertility

A. Tubal obstruction

B. Male factor

C. Chronic anovulation

D. Hyper androgens

E. Hypothyroidism

54. The following are factors affecting the choice of methotrexate as a choice of

treatment for ectopic pregnancy, EXCEPT:

A. Size of the ectopic

B. Presence or absence of cardiac activity

C. Level of BHCG

D. Parity of the patient

E. Integrity of the tube

55. All the following are possible of premature labor, EXCEPT:

A. Multiple pregnancy

B. Polyhydramnios

C. Bicorrnuate utures

D. Anecephaly

E. Perinatel infection

56. The most common cause of ectopic pregnancy is:

A. History of pelvic inflammatory disease

B. Congenital anomalies of the tube

C. Endometriosis

D. Tubal surgery

E. Previous sterilization

57. Accurate diagnosis of hydatiform mole can be made by

A. Elevated BHCG

B. Ultrasound

C. Pelvic examination

D. Chest radiography

E. Absence of fetal heart in a 16 week sac

All OB-GYN MCQs Second rearranged Edition 2011

239

58. All the following are possible causes of polyhydramios, EXCEPT:

A. Diabetes

B. Multiple pregnancy

C. Fetus with hydrops fetalis

D. Fetus with duodenal atresia or neural tube defect

E. IUGR

59. Uterine fibroid is:

A. Composed of fibrous tissue

B. Surround by a false capsule

C. The most common cystic tumor in women

D. Progestogen dependent

E. Managed by myomectomy in most of the cases

60. The following is true regarding degenerative changes in uterine fibroids

A. Sarcoma occurs in 2%

B. Cystic degeneration is common with the use of oral contraceptive pills

C. Hyaline degeneration causes acute pain

D. Torsion is common in intramural fibroid

E. Red degeneration should be managed conservatively

61. The karyotype of patient with Androgen insensitivity Syndrome is

A. 46xx

B. 46xy

C. 47xxy

D. 45x0

E. 45 xy

62. All are the risks associated with macrosomia, EXCEPT:

A. Maternal obesity

B. Prolonged Pregnancy

C. Previous large infant

D. Short Stature

E. Gestational Diabetes Mellitus

63. Risk Factors for DVT includes all, EXCEPT:

A. Smoking

B. Operative delivery

C. Lupus anticoagulation

D. Maternal weight over 80 kg

E. Hyperthyroidism

All OB-GYN MCQs Second rearranged Edition 2011

240

64. Risk Factors of gestational trophoblastic disease include all of the following,

Except?

A. Far East Asian

B. age under 20

C. Diet high Folic acid

D. Age above 40

E. Diet lower beta carotene

65. Side effects of B sympathomimetics include all of the following, Except?

A. Tachycardia

B. Pulmonary oedema

C. Headache

D. Premature closure of ductus arteriosus

E. Palpitation

66. Hyperemesis gravidarum in 1st trimester is seen with increased frequency in all of

the following except

A. H. Mole

B. Twins

C. Missed Abortion

D. Primigravida

E. Patient with history of hyperemesis

67. In a pregnant female which of the following depicts the level of iron:

A. Transferrin level

B. Serum ferritin level

C. Haemoglobin level

D. Iron binding capacity

E. Serum Iron

68. All the following are possible causes of anovulation,

EXCEPT:

A. High body mass index

B. Anorexia nervosa

C. Polycystic ovarian syndrome

D. Premature ovarian failure

E. Sickle cell trait

69. All the following are possible causes of menorrhagia, EXCEPT

A. Uterine fibroid

B. Adenomyosis

C. Pelvic inflammatory disease

D. Endometrial hyperplasia

E. Combine oral contraceptive pills

All OB-GYN MCQs Second rearranged Edition 2011

241

70. The puerperium:

A. Refer to the first 6 months after delivery

B. The lochia usually persist for 7 weeks

C. The uterine fundus should not be palpable abdominally by 14 days after

delivery

D. The incidence of post partum depression is 50%

E. Fever due to engorged breast occurs on the second day after delivery

71. Regarding incomplete abortion, all are true, EXCEPT:

A. There is a history of tissue passed per vagina

B. The cervix is open on vaginal examination

C. Ultrasound shows retained product of conception

D. Ultrasound shows intact gestational sac non- viable fetus

E. Management include evacuation

72. Which of the following factors predispose to genital prolapse

A. Repeated LSCS

B. Multiparty

C. Pelvic inflammatory disease

D. Endometriosis

E. Repeated candidiasis

73. Treatment of infertility:

A. Clomiphene citrateis helpful in patients with anovulator premature ovrian

failure

B. ovarian drilling is helpful in the treatment of infertility endometriosis

C. IVF is not helpful in the treatment of infertility due to male factor

D. Hyperstimulation syndrome can occurs in patient treated by gonadotropins

E. Spontaneous pregnancy can occur in patients with Mullerian agenesis

74. The luteal phase of the menstrual cycle is associated with

A. High luteinizing hormone level

B. High progesterone levels

C. High prolactin level

D. Low basal body temperature

E. Proliferative changes in the endometrium

75. Feature characteristically associated with an imperforate hymen in a patient aged

16 years includes:

A. Absence of secondary sexual

B. Acute retention of urine

C. Hirsutism

D. Short stature

All OB-GYN MCQs Second rearranged Edition 2011

242

E. Present with secondary amenorrhea

76. Most common cause of first trimester abortion

A. Chromosomal abnormalities

B. Syphilis

C. Rhesus isoimmunization

D. Cervical incompetence

E. Bifurcate uterus

77. A pregnant woman presents with a placenta praevia of a major defect and fetus is

malformed. Which of the following will be the best management?

A. Caesarian section

B. Oxytocin drip

C. Rupture of membranes

D. Induce with PG E2

E. Forceps delivery in the second stage to accelerate delivery

78. Polycystic ovarian diseases, all of the following can be seen, EXCEPT:

A. Acne

B. Streak ovaries

C. Insulin resistance

D. Hirsutism

E. Glactorrhoea

79. Urge incontinence

A. Is due to pelvic anatomic defect

B. patient loses small amount of urine

C. can be diagnosed with stress test

D. Can be treated medically

E. Can be treated surgically with sling

80. Breast feeding

A. Should be discontinued if breast infection is suspected

B. Should be started immediately in case of maternal HIV infection

C. Has a rule in involution of uterus

D. Should be replaced by bottle feeding if the patient had caesarean section

E. Contain adequate of iron

81. After menopause

A. There is increase vaginal acidity

B. Gonadotrophines level falls

C. There is increase in bone density

D. The size of an existing fibroid increases

All OB-GYN MCQs Second rearranged Edition 2011

243

E. Any post menopausal bleeding should be investigated by endometrial

sampling

82. The treatment of cystocele in a 32 years old may include the following, EXCEPT:

A. Pelvic floor exercise

B. Weight loss

C. Vaginal hysterectomy

D. Anterior colporrhaphy

E. Vaginal Pessary

83. Which instrument in no a basic component of a laparoscopy

A. Trochar

B. Hegar dilator

C. Veres needle

D. Light source

E. CO2 insufflation set

84. Which of the following is contra indication for delivery using vacuum extraction:

A. Face presentation

B. Second twins in vertex presentation

C. post term pregnancy

D. Occipito transverse position

E. Chorio amnionitis

85. Disseminated intravascular coagulation has a recognized association with:

A. IUFD

B. Multiple pregnancy

C. Iron deficiency

D. Diabetic mother

E. Prolonged bed rest

86. Regarding injectable progesterone conteaception, all of the following is true,

EXCEPT:

A. Medroxyparogesterone acetate is the most commonly used

B. May cause irregular uterine bleeding

C. May cause amenorrhae

D. Should not be given to lactating mother

E. Does not carry a risk of venous thrombosis

87. The following are contraindication to external cephalic version, EXCEPT:

A. Contracted pelvis

B. Placenta previa

C. Multiple pregnancy

D. Presence of cervial suture in site

All OB-GYN MCQs Second rearranged Edition 2011

244

E. Scared uterus

88. An Utrasound in the 1st trimester of pregnancy is done for

A. Placental localization

B. Detecting of fetal weght

C. Assessment of amniotic fluid volume

D. Detection of fetal breathing

E. Dating of the pregnancy

89. Incompetent cervix

A. Is a casue for early pregnancy loss

B. Is best diagnosed by history

C. Is a cause for fetal congenital abnormalities

D. Is not encounted with uterine anomities

E. Can be treated with tocolytics

90. In complete hydatidiform mole

A. Rarely contains maternal genetic material

B. Can present with hypothyroidism

C. Prophylactic cytotoxic therapy should be givien

D. Diagnosis is confirm with a very low blood level of human beta

gonadotrophine

E. Pre-eclampsia is the most common symptom and occur in 97% of patients

91. The best uterine scar a patient can have for Caesarian section is

A. Transverse upper segment

B. Longitudinal upper segment

C. Transverse lower segment

D. Longitudinal lower segment

E. A T-shaped incision

92. The diagnosis of endometriosis is often strongly suspected from patient's initial

history expressing the following except:

A. Infertility

B. Dysmenorrheal

C. Vaginal dryness

D. Dyspareunia

E. Chronic Pelvic pain

93. The following are true about Leiomyomas except:

A. Usually multiple

B. Usually malignant

C. Usually discrete

D. Usually spherical or irregular lobulated

All OB-GYN MCQs Second rearranged Edition 2011

245

E. Usually easy enucleated from the surrounding myometrium

94. Stages of labour

A. The first stage commences at the time of membrane rupture

B. The cervix dilates at consistent rate of 3 cm per hour in the first stage

C. The third stage end with the delivery of the placenta and membranes

D. Forceps or ventose may be useful in slow progress of the late 1st stage

E. Syntometrine is a combination of oxytocin and ergometrine which is used in

the treatment of secondary postpartum haemorrhage (PPH)

95. The main support of the uterus is provided by

A. The round ligament

B. The cardinal ligament

C. The infandilo pelvic ligament

D. The integrity of the pelvis

E. The broad ligament

96. All are CORRECT, EXCEPT, Pregnancy is associated with:

A. Increase cardiac output

B. Increase venous return

C. Increase peripheral resistance

D. Increase pulse rate

E. Increase stroke volume

97. High alpha feto protein found in? EXCEPT

A. IUFD

B. Multiple pregnancy

C. Some Ovarian Cancer

D. Trisomy 21

E. Neural tube defect

98. Urinary stress incontinence is:

A. The loss is of large amount of urine when intra abdominal pressure

B. The loss is of small amount of urine when intra abdominal pressure

C. Inability to control the bladder of all urine

D. Inability to pass urine

E. Constant loss of small amounts of urine

99. Menorrhagia is:

A. Intermittent irregular vaginal bleeding

B. Commonly presents as postmenopausal bleeding

C. Heavy menstrual cycle more than 80 ml

D. Infrequent spaced cycles every 45 days

E. The main presentation in case of Asherman Syndrome

All OB-GYN MCQs Second rearranged Edition 2011

246

100. The following are presumptive skin signs of pregnancy

except:

A. Chloasma

B. Maculo papular rash

C. Linea Nigra

D. Stretch Marks

E. Spider Telangiectases