1. Disseminated intravascular coagulation has a recognized association with:
A. IUFD
B. Multiple pregnancy
C. Iron deficiency
D. Diabetic mother
E. Prolonged bed rest
2. In prenatal infection
A. Rubella can be prevented by administration of rubella vaccine during
pregnancy
B. Toxoplasma is a virus
C. HIV virus infect the baby more readily when delivered vaginally than
caesarean section
D. Cytomegalovirus causes macrosomic babies
E. In HIV patient breast-feeding is encouraged
3. Uterine Cervix
A. Is the portion of the uterus below the isthmus
B. External OS cell lining is columnar epithelium
C. Laterally is attached to the round ligament
D. The cervical canal is covered with stratified squamous epithelium
E. Can be dilated with dilators without the need of anesthesia
4. Polyhydramnios is commonly found with
A. IUGR
B. Placenta previa
C. Diabetes insipidus
D. Fetal renal agenesis
E. Diabetes mellitus
5. Hyperextension of the fetal head is found in:
A. Vertex presentation
B. Face presentation
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C. Shoulder presentation
D. Breach presentation
E. Hydrocephalic baby
6. Which of the following contraceptive methods should not be used by a patient
with coronary heart disease?
A. Combined oral contraceptive pills
B. Male condom
C. Female condom
D. Diaphragm
E. Spermicidal agent
7. The Commonest uterine fibroid to cause excessive bleeding is
A. Submucous fibroid
B. Subserous fibroid
C. Intramural fibroid
D. Cervical fibroid
E. Broad ligament fibroid
8. All the following infection can be transmitted through sexual intercourse,
EXCEPT:
A. Genital herpes
B. Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)
C. Chlamydia
D. Gonorrhea
E. Vaginal Candidiasis
9. Regarding missed abortion, all of the following are CORRECT, EXCEPT:
A. Patient may present with loss of the symptoms of pregnancy
B. Per vaginal bleeding may be one of the presenting symptom
C. Immediate evacuation should be done once the diagnosis is made
D. Disseminated intra-vascular coagulation may occur as a sequele of
missed abortion
E. Ultrasound should be done to confirm the diagnosis
10. Hirsutism can be found in all of the following conditions, EXCEPT:
A. Polycystic ovary syndrome
B. On danazol therapy
C. Adrenal hyperplasia
D. Patient on oral contraceptive pills
E. Androgen secreting ovarian tumor
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11. In patient with bicornuate uterus when getting pregnant can get all these
complication, EXCEPT:
A. Polyhydramnios
B. Abortion
C. Preterm labor
D. Abnormal fetal lie
E. Retained placenta
12. All these drugs can be used as tocolytic to stop labor, EXCEPT:
A. Salbutamol ventolin
B. Diazepam (valium)
C. Calcium channel blocker
D. Indomethacin non steroidal anti inflammatory drugs
E. Ritodrine (beta agonist)
13. A 26 years old lady presented with secondary amenorrhea and FSH and LH are
found to be high, your diagnosis will be?
A. Sheehan syndrome
B. Asherman syndrome
C. Premature ovarian failure
D. Imperforated hymen
E. Pituitary adenoma
14. Sure sign of pregnancy is:
A. Amenorrhea
B. Hegar's sign
C. Nausea and vomiting
D. Auscultation of fetal heart
E. Abdominal distension
15. All these tests can be useful in management of intrauterine fetal growth
restriction IUGR except:
A. Fetal kick chart
B. Cardiotocography CTG non stress test
C. Chorionic villous sampling
D. Biophysical profile
E. Umbilical cord Doppler waveforms
16. 14 weeks pregnant woman had abortion and she was told that it is a complete
abortion. This is true regarding complete abortion:
A. Uterus is usually bigger than date
B. Cervical OS is opened with tissue inside the cervix
C. Need to have evacuation of the uterus
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D. After complete abortion there is minimal or no pain and minimal or no
bleeding
E. Follow up with BHCG for one year
17. In patient with endometrial cancer and less than 50% myometrial invasion, the
stage is at least:
A. IA
B. 1B
C. IC
D. IIA
E. III
18. In patients with three consecutive spontaneous abortion in the second
trimester the most useful investigation is:
A. Chromosomal analysis
B. Hysterosalpingogram
C. Endometrial biopsy
D. Post coital test
E. Prolactin level
19. If your patient is 8 weeks pregnant which one of the following USS
measurement is most useful
A. Crown rump length
B. Biparital diameter
C. Femur length
D. Placental site
E. Abdominal circumference
20. Which is a contraindication of induction of labor
A. History of upper segment caesarian section
B. Sever P E T at 36 weeks
C. Gestational diabetes on insulin at 39 weeks
D. Post term pregnancy
E. Chorioamnionitis
21. Complete breech means:
A. Flexion at hip joint and extension in knee joint
B. Flexion at hip joint and flexion at knee joint
C. Extension at the hip joint
D. Flexion at knee joint and extension at the hip joint
E. Flexion of one leg at hip joint and extension of the other leg at the hip
joint
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22. Untreated patients with cancer of the cervix usually die with
A. Cachexia and starvation
B. Bowel obstruction
C. Renal failure and uremia
D. Multi organ failure
E. Cerebro vascular accident primigravida
23. Regarding cervical incompetence, all of the following are true, EXCEPT:
A. Typically causes painful abortions
B. Typically causes mid-trimester abortions
C. Is treated by Shirodkar suture (cervical cerclage) which is best preformed
early in the second trimester
D. May lead to premature rupture of the membrane
E. Can occur in patient with history of cone biopsy
24. In Turner's syndrome:
A. A chromosomal structure of 45 XY is characteristic
B. Secondary amenorrhea is usual
C. Ovaries are streak
D. The ovaries are multicystic
E. Phenotypically are male
25. Which of the following tumors produces estrogen:
A. Endodermal sinus tumors
B. Choriocarcinoma
C. Granulosa-cell tumors
D. Dysgerminoma
E. Serous cyst adenoma
26. All the following are true, about ovarian hyperstimulation, EXCEPT:
A. It can follow any of ovulation induction drugs
B. In severe type admission to the intensive care unit may be required
C. The ovaries will be very small in size have unilateral cyst
D. It can diagnosed clinically and by ultrasound
E. Patients with PCO are at increased risk
27. All of the following are true about PCO except:
A. To diagnose PCO hormonal analysis can be done at any time of the cycle
B. It is associated with reversed FSH:LH ratio
C. It is associated with increase resistance to insulin
D. Can be associated with increased prolactin level
E. The ovaries have characteristic appearance by the ultrasound
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28. Regarding ectopic pregnancy, all of the following are true, EXCEPT:
A. Is associated with uterine enlargement
B. Is situated in the ovary in about 0.5% of all cases
C. Is more dangerous when it is situated in the isthmus of the fallopian tube
D. Can only be diagnosed after it has ruptured
E. Is a complication of assisted conception
29. Acceptable treatment for uterine fibroids includes all of the following EXCEPT:
A. No treatment
B. Myomectomy during pregnancy if red degeneration occurs
C. Myomectomy
D. Hysterectomy
E. GnRH agonist
30. Evaluation of infertile couples
A. History of regular cycles is suggestive of anovulation
B. History of severe dysmenorrhea and dyspareunia is suggestive of
endometriosis
C. Endometriosis is diagnosed by hysteroscopy
D. Hysterosalpingogram is the only means of assisting ectopic pregnancy
E. Thyroid disease does not affect fertility
31. Treatment of infertility
A. Clomiphene citrateis helpful in patients with anovulator premature
ovarian failure
B. Ovarian drilling is helpful in the treatment of infertility endometriosis
C. IVF is not helpful in the treatment of infertility due to male factor
D. Hyperstimulation syndrome can occurs in patient treated by
gonadotropins
E. Spontaneous pregnancy can occur in patients with Mullerian agenesis
32. Therapeutic termination of early pregnancy is indicated in:
A. Uterine fibroid
B. Maternal pulmonary hypertension
C. Placenta previa
D. Maternal blood sugar >12 mmol/L
E. Triplet pregnancy
33. All of the following possible causes of infertility, EXCEPT:
A. Previous laparotomy for any reason
B. Smoking
C. High body mass index
D. PCO
E. Uterine subserous fibroids
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34. All are true, about acute pyelonephritis in pregnancy, EXCEPT:
A. Occur in 60% of pregnant women
B. Can be preceded with asymptomatic bacteriuria
C. In severe form there should be administered and I.V. antibiotics should
be started
D. when recurrent should be investigated
E. May lead to premature labor
35. Antepartum haemorrhage may be caused by the following, EXCEPT:
A. Placenta previa
B. Cervical cancer
C. Abruptio placenta
D. Ectopic pregnancy
E. Vasa praevia
36. Sexual differentiation
A. Development of male genitalia depends on the presence of functioning
testes and responsive end organs
B. Due to the absence of testes XX fetus exposed to androgens in uteri will
NOT be masculinized
C. The development of the female genital requires presence of the ovary
D. 45 XO fetus will have normal ovaries
E. The development of the testes does not require presence of the Y
chromosome
37. Transplacental infection occur with all, EXCEPT:
A. Cytomegalo virus
B. Toxoplasma
C. Rubella
D. Syphilis
E. Gonorrhea
38. Each of the following typical feature of placenta previa, EXCEPT:
A. Painless bleeding
B. First episode of bleeding is usually self limited
C. May be associated with post coital bleeding
D. Commonly associated with coagulopathy
E. The uterus tends to be soft and tender
39. A 33-year old woman at 37 weeks gestation confirmed by early sonogram
presents with moderate to sever vaginal bleeding, and is note by sonogram to
have placenta previa, which of the following is the best management for her.
A. Induction of labor
B. Give tocolytic drugs
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C. Caesarean section
D. Expectant management
E. Artificial rupture of the membrane
40. Screening is most effective in preventing which of the following cancers.
A. Vulva
B. Cervix
C. Endometrial
D. Ovary
E. Fallopian tube
41. The tumor marker secreted by endodermal sinus (yolk sac) tumor is
A. Alph-Fetoprotien
B. HCG
C. LDH
D. Inhibin
E. Ca 125
42. Select the most correct statement about fetal and neonatal IgM
A. It is almost entirely maternal in origin
B. It is approximately 75% maternal and 25% fetal in origin
C. It is 50% maternal, 50% fetal in origin
D. It is 25% maternal, 75% fetal in origin
E. It is almost entirely fetal in origin
43. The following statement are all TRUE about vomiting in pregnancy, EXCEPT:
A. May be cured by admission to hospital
B. Is commonest in the third trimester
C. Associated with multiple pregnancy
D. Is associated with trophoblastic disease
E. Is associated with urinary tract infection
44. Permanent sterilization include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. Vasectomy
B. Tubal ligation
C. Mirena IUCD
D. Hysterectomy
E. Bilateral salpingectomy
45. In cases with premature rupture of membranes, all the following are
acceptable in the conservative management
A. Frequent vaginal examination to assess cervical dilatation
B. serial complete blood count to diagnose rising of WBC
C. Close monitoring of maternal vital signs
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D. Ultrasound to assess fetal weight and amount of liquor
E. Monitoring of the fetus by doing cardiotocogram
46. What is true about shoulder presentation
A. Cord prolapse is common
B. 3rd degree perineal tear is common
C. Deep transverse arrest can occur
D. More common in primigravida
E. Always end by shoulder dystocia
47. Surfactant
A. Is secreted by type I pneumocytes
B. Are glycoprotein
C. After 38 weeks the ratio to sphingomyelins is 2:1
D. Its secretion is suppressed by betamethzone
E. Its deficiency lead to adult respiratory distress syndrome
48. Treatment of pelvic inflammatory disease include the following, EXCEPT:
A. Oral doxycycline
B. Removal of IUCD
C. Clindamycin
D. Tetracycline
E. Dilatation and curettage (D & C)
49. In Pre-eclampsia, right upper quadrant part abdominal pain is due.
A. Tension of the liver capsule
B. Cholecystitis
C. Pancreatitis
D. Gastric ulcer
E. Oesophagitis
50. Urge incontinence
A. Is due to pelvic anatomic defect
B. patient loses small amount of urine
C. can be diagnosed with stress test
D. Can be treated medically
E. Can be treated surgically with sling
51. Abruptio placenta
A. Postpartum hemorrhage occurs only when there in hypofibrinogenemia
B. Maternal anemia is a major cause for abruptio placenta
C. Fetus is not usually affected
D. Associated with antecedent hypertension
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E. On Examination the abdomen is usually soft and lax
52. Placenta previa
A. Is diagnosed when the placenta occupies the funds and start to bleed
B. Recognized to be complicated by postpartum hemorrhage
C. Has a major risk to the fetus
D. Less common in patients with repeat caesarian section
E. Diagnosis is confirmed when bleeding starts at 13 weeks of gestation
53. Postpartum haemorrhage
A. May occur as a consequence of antepartum haemorrhage
B. Ends with hypercoagulable state
C. Hysterectomy is the first the first line of treatment
D. Always complicate intrauterine fetal death (IUFD)
E. Diagnosed only when the placenta is still undelivered
54. Secondary postpartum haemorrhage
A. Is diagnosed when bleeding occurs 72 hours after delivery
B. Contra indicate breast feeding
C. The commonest cause is the cervical tears
D. Very common when the patient delivers a congenitally abnormal baby
E. Choriocarcinoma could be a cause
55. A pregnant lady with polyhydramnios, the cause could be:
A. Fetus with oesophageal atresia
B. Fetus with polycystic kidney disease
C. Fetal growth restriction
D. Hyperprolactinaemia during pregnancy
E. Patient is taking anti epileptic drugs
56. The following have a recognized relation with spontaneous preterm labor
A. Fetus with anencephaly
B. Oligohydramnios
C. Maternal hypothyroidism
D. Bacterial vaginosis
E. Transverse lie of the fetus
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