601.About MgSO4.
a) At 50 % concentration should be given IV to get fit prevention.
b) Act at the neuromuscular junction by blocking the acetylcholine release.
c) Prevent the Calcium entrance to the damaged cells.
d) Prevent convulsion by inhibiting epileptogens mediators.
e) At 12 meq/l serum level can induce cardio respiratory arrest.
602.About hypertension in pregnancy.
a) The three main mechanism causing hypertension are: increased preload,
increased cardiac output, decreased preload.
b) The order to treat this mechanism in a pregnant patient is: post load (central or
peripheral vasodilator); preload (venodilator); cardiac out put (β-blocker).
c) Sudden reduction of blood pressure levels can induce IUGR and/or IUFD.
d) Transient hypertension of pregnancy (group IV FIGO) should be treated with
central vasodilator.
e) Micro albuminuria can be a sign of pre-eclampsia.
603.Physiopathology of pre-eclampsia.
a) Any event causing placental ischaemia is a risk factor.
b) Immunological theory has the explanation in the familiar predisposition.
c) Genetic information in the father has no role.
d) Impaired trophoblast differentiation/ invasion seem to have the main role.
e) VEGF/PlGF 1deffciency can be the starting even.
604.Pre-eclampsia management.
a) 33 WOA, blood pressure 140/100 mmHg, urine protein xx, LFT and RFT normal:
admission, bed rest and oral antihypertensive treatment.
b) 33 WOA, 140/115 mmHg, urine protein xxx, blurred vision, vomiting; admission,
bed rest, oral antihypertensive treatment, MgSO4 50% IV.
c) 33 WOA, 115 mmHg urine protein xxx, blurred vision, vomiting and
hyperreflexia: admission, IV Hydralazine (5mg/30 min till BP is 120/80mmHg,
MgSO4 50% IM (14g) plan for immediate caesarean section.
d) 36 WOA, 140/108 mmHg, urine protein nil, asymptomatic, IV Hydralazine
5mg/30 min, after BP control, oral methyldopa.
e) 36 WOA, 140/110 mmHg urine protein xx, fronto-oocipital headache: Admission,
IV Hydralazine 5mg/30 min, IV MgSO4 20% and IM 50 %, Induction of labour
after BP control if bishop score > 6.
605.Modified obstetric practices in PMTCT include the following
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a) Vaginal cleansing with clean water
b) Administration of 2mg/kg of Nevirapine tablets to a baby after 72hrs of delivery
c) An episiotomy may be performed when necessary
d) Delivery must be conducted in hospital
e) Elective C/S.
606.An HIV positive mother delivers a healthy baby. PCR confirms that this baby is HIV
negative at birth. What will you do to prevent MTCT
a) Breast feeding for only three months will protect the baby
b) Since the baby is negative, Nevirapine is not necessary
c) Replacement feeding with cow milk is the ideal
d) Wet Nursing is a recognised option
e) Condom use has no role in protecting this baby.
607.The following statements are true about PMTCT
a) The sero prevalence of HIV among pregnant women in Mbarara region is 6.8%
b) The sero prevalence of HIV among pregnant women in Uganda is 13%
c) PMTCT interventions reduce transmission of HIV to infants by 50%
d) Breast feeding alone contributes 35% of MTCT
e) Family planning is important.
608.A G2P1+0 HIV positive mother comes to clinic. Which of the following will you
consider
a) Initiation of HAART even without medical eligibility
b) CD4 count will not influence the decision to start ART
c) 3TC, D4T, EFV is the combination of Choice
d) 3TC, D4T, NVP is the combination of Choice
e) Triomune is never given
609.About waste management
a) Hospital, Blood banks and domiciliary make the largest source of Health care
waste
b) Yellow bin is for placenta and anatomical wastes
c) Sharps constitute more than 1% of health care waste
d) and b) are correct
e) b) and c) are correct.
610.About multiple pregnancy.
a) There is not significant increase in obstetric complications.
b) Risk of obstetric complications is slightly increased.
c) Perinatal morbidity/mortality is reduced.
d) At 2 years old, infant mortality rate of twins is the same as that of singletons.
e) Is common in blacks.
611.In monozygotic twins.
a) One ovum is fertilized for two sperms.
b) Comprises 2/3 of all twins.
c) Dichorionic-diamniotic placentation occurs when cell division occurs in 1st 72
hours of fertilization.
d) Predisposing factors include race and use of fertility induction drugs.
e) Can co-exist with dizygotic twins.
612.APH.
a) Any bleeding from genital tract at any gestational age.
b) Any bleeding form genital tract after 28 WOA, independently of the cause.
c) Vasa previa is the commonest cause.
d) Amniotomy and induction can be done in type II placenta previa.
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e) Lovset’s manoeuvre can help during management.
613.Abruptio placenta.
a) Can appear before labour, during second stage or during third stage of labour.
b) Severe abruption always presents with heavy PV bleeding and shock.
c) DIC is one the commonest cause.
d) Severe abruption, IUFD and DIC should be delivered by emergency caesarean
section.
e) Couvelaire uterus usually treated with Oxytocic drugs and DIC correction.
614.Epidemiology of multifoetal gestation.
a) Incidence of monozygotic twins is uniform worldwide.
b) Incidence of Dizygotic twins is uniform worldwide.
c) Incidence is thought to be higher among whites.
d) Paternal family history is not a risk factor.
e) Overweight and tall women are at a greater risk for twin birth.
615.Method of delivery of twins (mother in labour).
a) 1
st twin, cephalic presentation, C/section.
b) 1
st twin in non- longitudinal lie, external cephalic version can be attempted.
c) 1
st twin non-longitudinal lie; C section is suggested.
d) If 2nd twin is a non-longitudinal lie internal podalic version can be attempted.
e) If 2nd twin is breech, C/section should be done.
616.Labour management in multifoetal gestation.
a) Induction of labour is contraindicated.
b) IV fluids should be given as soon as labour starts.
c) Vacuum extraction can be done on breech 2nd twin.
d) Forceps can be done on delivery after coming head.
e) Both babies have a high morbidity and mortality.
617.Components of essential obstetric care include:
a) Parenteral Oxytocic dugs.
b) Parenteral antibiotics.
c) Manual removal of retained products.
d) Manual removal of the placenta.
e) Use of anticonvulsant.
618.The following are common renal disorder during pregnancy.
a) Nephrotic syndrome.
b) Mild right hydronephrosis.
c) Pyelonephritis.
d) Calculi.
e) Glomerulonephritis.
619.About caesarean section.
a) Increase risk of MTTC transmission of HIV.
b) Increase risk of puerperal infection.
c) Classical incision has less risk of uterine ruptures in subsequent pregnancies.
d) In emergencies, patients don’t need to be consented.
e) Is the commonest cause of obstetric fistula.
620.Post caesarean care.
a) Ambulation should not be started before 24 hours.
b) Oral feeding neither is nor indicated before 12 hours.
c) Foley catheter in prolonged/obstetric labour should be keep inserted for 21 days.
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d) Elective operations antibiotic prophylaxis should be extended for at least 72
hours.
e) Deep venous thrombosis prevented by ambulation.
621.Regarding episiotomy.
a) It’s done to shorten second stage only.
b) Done in every primegravida.
c) Reduces the risk of MTCT of HIV.
d) Medio-lateral incisions are more prone to extension than median episiotomy.
e) The entire above.
622.The perineal body has attachment to 8 muscle which include:
a) Sphincter ani externus.
b) Gluteus maximus.
c) Transverse perinei superficialis and rpofundi.
d) Levator ani.
e) All of the above.
623.The vulva consist of:
a) Vaginal orifice.
b) Vestibule.
c) Urethral orifice.
d) Labia majora and minora.
e) Clitoris.
624.Cu T380A is:
a) An intrauterine releasing hormone device.
b) An intra vaginal device containing 380 mm surface area of cupper wire around
the stem.
c) Can be inserted immediately after normal delivery.
d) Act by causing a foreign body reaction in the uterus.
e) Is effective only for 5 years.
625.The following are steroidal contraceptives.
a) Nuva ring.
b) Mirena.
c) Mifepristone.
d) Cyclofem
e) Progestasert.
626.Depo-Provera:
a) Contains both progesterone and oestrogens.
b) Can cause break through bleeding.
c) Is effective for 10 weeks.
d) Contains 3rd generation progesterone.
e) Return to fertility is immediate after termination its use.
627.The following are possible complications of intrauterine device.
a) Syncope attacks.
b) Abnormal menstrual bleedings.
c) Spotting.
d) Spontaneous expulsion.
e) Dyspareunia.
628.Vasectomy.
a) Leads to sterility after 10 ejaculations.
b) May cause impotence.
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c) Involves ligation of Vasa efferentia.
d) Can lead to primary testicular failure.
e) Is reversible.
629.Vaginal foam tablets.
a) Active ingredients are nonoxynol-8
b) Act causing endometrial thinning.
c) Cause a foreign body reaction.
d) Are inserted after sex.
e) Are spermistatic.
630.The following syndromes are associated with male infertility.
a) Kallman’s syndrome.
b) Savages’ syndrome.
c) Meig’s syndrome.
d) Sheehan’s syndrome.
e) Asherman’s syndrome.
631.The following factors can lead to male infertility.
a) Excessive smoking.
b) Morbid obesity.
c) Orchidopexy.
d) Vasectomy.
e) Mumps infections.
632.These are germ cell tumour.
a) Embryonal carcinoma.
b) Dysgerminomas.
c) Granulosa cell tumour.
d) Serous tumour.
e) Teratomas.
633.Cervical carcinoma screening methods.
a) Unaided visual inspecting with acetic acid.
b) HPV DNA tests.
c) Visual inspection with naked eyes.
d) Can be done at 60 years of age.
e) Not recommended after cryotherapy.
634.Carcinoma of the cervix management.
a) Stage I A1 cone can be done.
b) Radiotherapy can be used to cure the disease.
c) It is a chemo sensitive cancer.
d) Chemo-radiation can be done.
e) Second look surgery is indicated.
635.Cervical carcinoma Clinical staging.
a) Clinical lesion visible, 3,5 cm on diameter, anterior lip, uterus free, normal
ultrasound and proctoscopy, cytoscopy showing bladder infiltration is stage
.............
b) Lesion no visible clinically but histology informing; Endocervical adeno carcinoma,
LFT normal, Us scan negative, uterus fix to the pelvis, RFT abnormal is stage
...........
c) No clinical lesion visible, histology informed you, cervical carcinoma with stromal
invasion 3mm on deep and 5 mm on transverse diameter: stage.........
d) Cervical carcinoma invading lower third of the vagina is stage .........
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e) Lesion 3 cm on diameter, uterus free, no parametrial involvement, bladder an
rectum free, LFT and RFT normal, Us scan no involvement of the liver or kidneys,
but multiple lymph nodes in the pelvis: stage..............
636.Surgical finding suggestive of malignancies.
a) Adhesions presence.
b) Bilateral tumour.
c) Partially solid and cystic tumour.
d) Torsion.
e) Scanty vascularization of the surface.
637.Meig’s syndrome is associated with.
a) Krukemberg tumour.
b) Dermoid cyst.
c) Fibroma.
d) Mucinous tumour.
e) The presence of ascites and no hydrothorax.
638.About PID.
a) Fever, lower abdominal pain and vaginal discharge considered major signs.
b) C reactive protein, have a good sensitivity for assessing out come.
c) Presence of fluid in the pouch of Douglas in an abdominal ultrasound is
pathognomonic.
d) Bilateral hydrosalpinx is usually associated to sub acute and chronic PID.
e) In a pelvic abscess criteria to discharge patient is ESR less than 100 mm.
639. Surgery for PID is done:
a) To every severe PID patient.
b) In abscess formation.
c) Not of diagnosis.
d) For social reasons or indications.
e) All the above.
640. During D and C.
a) Sharp curettage is for infertility.
b) Sharp curettage is for Tb endometritis.
c) Sharp curettage is for endometrial carcinoma.
d) Blunt curettage is for choriocarcinoma.
e) Anaesthesia is not required.
641. Predisposing factors for vaginal candidiasis include.
a) Pregnancy.
b) Good immune status.
c) Glycosuria.
d) Broad spectrum antibiotic therapy.
e) Chronic anaemia.
642.Trichomoniasis is characterized:
a) Vaginal tenderness and pain.
b) Non-irritant discharge.
c) Patchy strawberry vaginitis.
d) Copious offensive frothy discharge.
e) Dysuria.
643.The natural defence of the genital tract.
a) Is maintained by acidity of the vagina.
b) Is interfered with lactobacilli.
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c) Is enhanced by oestrogens and progesterone.
d) Is improved by menstruation.
e) The entire above is false.
644. About choriocarcinoma.
a) Chest x ray is mandatory in the management.
b) Raise HCG level less than 10 % in two consecutive weeks after three normal
measurements is a bad prognosis sign.
c) Stage II and III low risk should be treated with first line combination
chemotherapy.
d) Stage IV always considered as high risk.
e) Complicated brain metastasis needing craniotomy for management.
645.Choriocarcinoma WHO scoring system.
a) Older than 39 scored 1.
b) Brain metastasis scored 2.
c) Less than 4 metastasis scored 0.
d) Tumour size 3-5 cm scored 4.
e) Only one previous chemotherapeutic agent scored 0.
646.The following are true about uterine fibroids.
a) Treated always by surgery.
b) Red degeneration more common in post menopause.
c) Hyaline degeneration is a possible complication.
d) Medical treatment has no benefits.
e) Cannot be treated by endoscopic surgery.
647.Criteria for medical treatment for uterine fibroid include.
a) Giant fibroid previously surgery.
b) Small fibroids.
c) Contraindications for surgery.
d) To earn time and compensate the patient for surgery.
e) To preserve fertility.
648.About genital prolapse.
a) Commonly affecting young women.
b) Always treated by Manchester’s operation.
c) Kegel’s exercise can prevent it.
d) Pelvic floor usually affected.
e) Can’t appear after TAH.
649.Spread of Ca cervix is predominantly by.
a) Lymphatics.
b) Haematogenous.
c) Implantation during sexual intercourse.
d) Direct extension.
e) None of the above.
650.Cancer of the cervix stage 3b can be associated with the following.
a) Hypertension.
b) Lymphoedema of the lower limb.
c) Hydronephrosis.
d) A and B above.
e) Band C above.
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