651.In calculating the dose for radiotherapy, point A is,
a) 2 cm cephalic and 5 cm lateral to the external os.
b) 5 cm cephalic and 2cm lateral to the external os.
c) 2cm cephalic and 2cm lateral to the external os.
d) 5cm cephalic and 5cm lateral to the external os.
e) The site of the lymph node of cloquete.
652.In brachytherapy the dose of radiation is as follows,
a) Point A gets 70-80Gy.
b) Point B gets 20Gy.
c) The cancerolytic dose is 70-75Gy.
d) Point B is supplemented by 40Gy of EBR.
e) All the above.
653.After treatment of ca cervix, follow up recommendations should be,
a) 2 months interval in the first years.
b) 3 months intervals in the second year.
c) Annually in the first two years.
d) Every three years after 10 years.
e) 6 months intervals in the 3-5year.
654.In VIA, the target age group for screening is (Uganda).
a) 18 to 25 years.
b) 25 to 50 years.
c) 35 to 45 years if the screening is to be once in a life time.
d) For women greater than 50 years the screening interval is five years.
e) Annual screening is recommended for women 18 to 25 years.
655.The following are indications for ECC.
a) Positive Pap smear.
b) Pap smear reveals squamous epithelium.
c) Transformation zone not seen on colposcopy.
d) Positive Pap smear no lesion seen on colposcopy
e) A and C above.
656.Corpus cancer syndrome involves.
a) Obesity, hypertension, CCF
b) Obesity, hypertension, diabetes mellitus, cancer endometrium.
c) Obesity, hypertension, renal disease.
d) Obesity, hypertension, haematometra.
e) Haematocolpos, obesity, hypertension.
657.About choriocarcinoma metastatic lesion to the brain are suspected when the ratio of
of HCG in spinal fluid to serum is
a) 1:6
b) 1:70
c) 1:80
d) 1:90
e) 1:60
658.A chemotherapy course for GTN should not be continued if
a) WBC level less than 3000/cu mm.
b) Polymorphonuclear leucocytes equal to 1500cumm
c) Platelets count between100.000 to 150.000cumm.
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d) After 2 negative weekly hCG titres.
e) After 3 consecutive negative weekly HCG titres.
659.About administration of methotrexate for treatment of GTN the following are not
true.
a) Methotrexate 1-1.5mg/kg IM or IV on day 1, 3, 5 and 7.
b) Methotrexate 1-1.5mg/kg IM or IV on day 2, 4, 6 and 8 to be repeated after one
week.
c) Folinic acid 0.1-0.15mg/kg IM on day2, 4, 6 and 8 to be repeated after 1 week.
d) A and C.
e) None of the above.
660.About placental site tumour treatment is by
a) Methotrexate 2mg/kg for 6 months.
b) Methotrexate 1mg/kg for 4 months.
c) Methotrexate, ActinomycinD, Etopside, cyclophosphamide and oncovin.
d) Cisplatin and cyclophosphamide.
e) Carboplatin and Paclitaxel.
661.Lynch type two familiar cancer syndrome the following are true
a) Mutation of BRCA 1 gene (chromosome 17p).
b) Mutation of BRCA 2 gene (chromosome 13p)
c) Mutation of chromosome 6 and 7.
d) Mutation of chromosome 6 only.
e) Mutation of chromosome 15q.
662.About metastatic ovarian tumours, common primary site are
a) Pylorus.
b) Colon
c) Breast.
d) Liver.
e) Oesophagus
663.The following are true about stage 1c ovarian cancer.
a) Growth limited to one ovary with capsule ruptured.
b) Growth involves both ovaries capsule intact.
c) Growth limited one ovary positive peritoneal washing.
d) Growth limited to both ovaries capsule ruptured.
e) Growth involving both ovaries, tubes and uterus.
664.Concerning acetic acid the following are true.
a) It is mucolytic.
b) Around an abnormal nucleus light transmission is hindered.
c) Fades in 1-2 minutes
d) Epithelium becomes white in metaplasia
e) Epithelium becomes white in malignancy.
665.The following are true about colposcopic findings of blood vessels in cervicitis.
a) Stag-horn like vessels
b) Wasted thread vessels.
c) Tendril vessels.
d) Cork screw vessels
e) Tadpole like vessels.
666.Straw-berry appearance of the cervix occurs in
a) HPV infection.
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b) HSV type 2 infection.
c) Candidiasis.
d) CIN 111.
e) Trichomoniasis
667.Concerning the squamous epithelium of the cervix from the base towards the
superficial layers the following are true
a) Cells increase in size.
b) Cells decrease in size.
c) The nucleus increases in size
d) The nucleus decreases in size
e) A and C above.
668.Regarding a normal cervix in reproductive life the following layers contain glycogen
a) Intermediate layer of the squamous epithelium.
b) Superficial layer of the squamous epithelium
c) Basal layer of the squamous epithelium.
d) Superficial layer of the columnar epithelium.
e) Basal layer of the columnar epithelium.
669.In HSIL stromal capillaries may appear as
a) Rete pegs.
b) Mosaic vessels.
c) Punctations.
d) A and C above.
e) A and B above.
670.Regarding Gardasil it is effective in prevention of the following HPV serotypes
a) HPV 6, 11, 16, 18
b) HPV 11, 45, 18,
c) HPV 16, 11 ,33
d) HPV I8 ,33, 45
e) HPV 45, 11, 16, 33.
671.The following statements are true about pre- eclampsia.
a) Is among the commonest cause of maternal mortality in MRRH.
b) SFlt-1 prevents the correct differentiation and invasion of the trophoblast.
c) Aspirin inhibit the synthesis of prostacyclin.
d) Thromboxane A2 is a potent vasodilator.
e) None of the entire above is true.
672.Hydralazine use in pre-eclampsia.
a) Is vasodilator with central alpha blocker action.
b) Should be given 10 mg/ 30 min up to 30 mg as the maximum dose.
c) Ampoules containing 20 mg should be diluted in 20 ml of 5 % dext and given
over 10 min.
d) a) and c) above.
e) None of the above.
673.MgSO4.
a) Act by preventing the release of acetylcholine at neuromuscular plaque.
b) Prevent the entry of calcium to the damaged endothelial cells.
c) Stimulate the N-methyl-D-aspartate receptors.
d) Toxicity appears with concentration of 8 to 10 meq/L.
e) Pulmonary oedema is a common complication.
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674.The following are true about the management of pre-eclampsia.
a) Oral antihypertensive are indicated to all mild pre-eclamptic patients.
b) Antihypertensive treatment for adult pre-eclamptic patient should be started with
BP greater than 160/110 mmHg.
c) Foetal lung maturity induction is not necessary because the effect of
hypertension.
d) Patient with severe pre-eclampsia should be induced as soon as hypertension has
being controlled.
e) None of the entire above is true.
675.APH.
a) Abortion is a common cause of APH.
b) In patient with placenta praevia type II ARON should be done followed by labour
induction.
c) In a patient with chronic abruptio placenta aspirin should be given 6 hourly to
protect placental blood flow.
d) FHR absence in a severe abruption always means IUFD.
e) Severe abruption with IUFD and DIC should be delivered immediately by
emergency C/section.
676.Cervical carcinoma.
a) HPV and HIV association is an important risk factor in Uganda.
b) The presence of unilateral hydronephrosis is not a IIIb stage.
c) Stage Ib 1 can be treated with radical trachelectomy in patient with fertility’s
desire.
d) CRT combination after surgery does not improve the survival rate at 5 years for
stage IIb
e) All of the above.
677.About CIN.
a) All CIN should be treated surgically.
b) CIN III or CIS is always an indication for TAH.
c) Visual Inspection Under acetic acid (VIA) is not useful in CIN screening.
d) A positive Schiller’s test should be considered as diagnostic for CIN.
e) Squamous Columnar Junction is not important when taking a Pap smear.
678.Choriocarcinoma.
a) Can arise from any type of trophoblastic tissue.
b) It commonly appears after a partial mole.
c) Placental Site Tumour is easily diagnosed because the presence of chorionic villi.
d) Typical presentation is the presence of theca-lutein cyst.
e) hCG level higher than 105 IU/L is considered as poor prognosis.
679.The following are true about management of choriocarcinoma
a) Stage I should always be treated with TAH only.
b) Stage I can be treated with single CT agent.
c) Combination Chemotherapy is indicated in stage II as initial choice independently
of the risk score.
d) Stage III high risk should receive initially second line Combination CT.
e) When metastases are present the response to CT treatment is poor.
680. Are the following statement true about Choriocarcinoma and it’s follow up?
a) Stage I can be allowed to conceive within the 1st year after treatment.
b) COC are contraindicated.
c) Stage III: hCG levels should be checked weekly until are normal during 3
consecutive months.
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d) Stage IV if TAH is done second look surgery should be done within 6 month.
e) In stage IV hCG determination should be stopped after 1 year with normal level.
681.The length of the menstrual cycle is dependent on
a) Number of ovarian follicles recruited
b) The length of the luteal phase
c) The length of the follicular phase
d) The number of ovarian follicles at birth
e) All the above.
682. During the postmenopausal period there is
a) High circulating levels of Oestrogens
b) High circulating levels of Progesterone
c) High circulating levels of Luteinizing hormone.
d) All the above
e) None of the above
683. During the management of malaria:
a) A negative blood slide means there is no malaria
b) Quinine can be used in early pregnancy
c) I.V Quinine should be given in Normal saline since the mother is dehydrated
d) All the above
e) None of the above
684.In the management of premature labour
a) Vacuum extraction should be done to expiate the delivery
b) Dexamethasone injection is mandatory to prevent respiratory distress syndrome
c) Prostaglandins should never be given
d) All the above
e) None of the above
685.In the management of mild pre eclampsia
a) The patient can be seen weekly
b) The mother should be immediately admitted
c) The mother should be delivered by caesarean section when she reaches 40 weeks
of amenorrhea
d) All the above
e) None of the above
686.During infertility work up
a) Semen analysis should be the first to be done as it is easy to do
b) The couple should be given information on the menstrual cycle
c) Ovulation induction is a method of treatment
d) All the above
e) None of the above
687.Habitual abortion
a) Is defined as 3 or more consecutive losses of pregnancies before 28 weeks
b) Cervical stitch is always successful
c) Can be investigated before pregnancy
d) All the above
e) None of the above
688.About abortions
a) Threatening abortion in the first trimester can be treated by bed rest
b) MVA can be done by all staff cadres if trained
c) The condition can be life threatening
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d) a and c above
e) All the above
689.The following are true about comprehensive post abortion care
a) The mother can start using a family planning method like the IUCD immediately
b) The mother can get pregnant within two weeks of the abortion
c) The mother can refuse testing for HIV
d) All the above
e) a and b above
690.Carcinoma of the ovary
a) Is stage 2A if it spreads to the upper 1/3rd of the vagina without parametrial
spread
b) Is stage 3B if it has spread to the lateral pelvic wall
c) Is stage 3 if there is parenchymal induration of the liver at laparotomy
d) a and c above
e) None of the above
691.Menopause
a) Diagnosis is made in the presence of low ooestrogen and FSH levels
b) Increases the risk of fracture of the femur in obese women
c) Treatment with hormone replacement therapy carries no risk
d) Symptoms can be controlled with the combined contraceptive pill
e) All the above
692.The following is/are associated with male infertility
a) None scalpel vasectomy
b) Thyroid disorders
c) Chicken pox at 18 years of age
d) All the above
e) b and c above
693.The following are true about the partogram
a) Reduces the need for unnecessary vaginal examinations
b) Reduces the need for consultation
c) Should be used by midwives and students (nursing and medical) only
d) Should be used by specialists’
e) All the above
694.Symptoms of pregnancy.
a) Quickening is experienced at about 18 weeks in multigravidas.
b) The uterus may palpable abdominally by 12 wks.
c) Lightening is the reduction in fundal length which occurs between 38-40 wks.
d) Foetal heart can be heard using Pinard stethoscope at 24 wks.
695.Presumptive manifestation of pregnancy includes.
a) Amenorrhoea
b) Nausea and vomiting presence of Montgomery tubercles.
c) Positive Golden sign.
d) Leucorrhoea.
696.Clinical parameter of gestational age.
a) Quickening appreciated about 17 wks in multigravidas and 18 in primegravidas.
b) Foetal biparietal diameter accurate before 16 WOA.
c) Foetal heart tones may be heard at 20 wks by Pinard stethoscope.
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d) Ossified foetal bone appears at 12 to 14 wks.
697.During embryonic development the trophoblast is.
a) Endodermal in origin.
b) Mesodermal in origin.
c) Ectodermal in origin.
d) All of the above.
698.The following are true about the refocused antenatal care.
a) There is reduced mother health worker time contact.
b) It is cheaper on the mothers.
c) The fewer attendances are will give heavier clinics as more mothers come on
particular day.
d) There is less satisfaction to the mothers as they are seen less.
699.About post abortal care.
a) Antibiotics cover to prevent infection.
b) Immediate post abortion family planning to avoid another pregnancy.
c) Connection to other reproductive health services.
d) All of the above.
700.HIV in pregnancy MTCT
a) An ante partum haemorrhage is not obstetric factor for transmission.
b) Scalp blood sampling increase risk of transmission.
c) Mixed feeding decrease risk.
d) Episiotomy should not be used in HIV positive mothers.
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