752.About abortion
a) An abortion is the expulsion of the product of conceptions before 28 wks
b) All criminal abortion should received antibiotic treatment, after uterine cavity
evacuation
c) Habitual abortion is when a woman lost 4 or more pregnancies, even when they
are not consecutively
d) Habitual abortion is commonly associated with cervical incompetence
e) More than 90 % of abortions during the first trimester are potentially congenital
anomalies
753.About maternal death
a) Is often associated with poor obstetric care
b) Is a direct maternal death when is consequence of a disease coexisting g with
pregnancy
c) Is direct when occur secondary to an event related with the pregnancy but no
during Puerperium
d) A death by ectopic pregnancy is not a direct maternal death
e) A death by a secondary peritonitis due to appendicitis should not be considered
as maternal death
754.Hospitalization for patient with PID
a) Pregnancy
b) Temperature of more than 38 ̊C
c) Suspected pelvic abscess
d) Patient request
e) All of the above
755.Differential diagnosis of PID
a) Ovulation
b) Cystitis
c) Degenerating myoma
d) Sickle cell crisis
e) Irritable bowel syndrome
756.PID
a) Hysterectomy may be a mode of treatment
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b) Surgery is always indicated
c) Clindamycin is also used in the treatment
d) Chronic pelvic pain syndrome is a complication
e) Infertility is a common complication
757.Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome
a) There is right upper quadrant pain
b) Occurs almost exclusively among women
c) Salpingitis is not included
d) Viral hepatitis is a differential
e) N. gonorrhoea and C. trachomatis have been associated
758.Uterine fibroids can cause infertility through
a) Tubal obstruction
b) Abnormal myometrial and endometrial veins
c) Interference with normal myometrial contractility
d) Distortion of uterine cavity
e) All of the above
759.The following factors affect wound healing
a) Proper apposition of tissues
b) Immune status of individual
c) Prolonged use of steroids
d) Pre-morbid state
e) Site of incision
760.The predisposing factors to ward sepsis include the following except
a) Proper use of prophylactic antibiotics
b) Use of catheter and bag in post operative patients
c) Hand washing with soap
d) Decontaminating formulas
e) Early discharge of postoperative patients
761.The following are risk factors to genital prolapses
a) Grande multiparous
b) Third degree perineal tears
c) Connective tissue defects
d) Surgeries
e) Increased intra abdominal pressure
762.PID
a) Surgery is always indicated
b) Hysterectomy may be done
c) Chronic pelvic pain is a complication
d) Clindamycin is good drug
e) Infertility is a common complication
763.Gestational Trophoblastic Neoplasia.
a) In stage I the disease confined to the uterus.
b) Can fallow normal pregnancy.
c) Can follow an abortion.
d) Has a tumour marker.
e) All the above.
764.Which of follow statement is in relation with Choriocarcinoma?
a) Most commonly develops after molar pregnancy.
b) The most common site of metastasis is liver.
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c) Persistent P.V bleeding is the commonest symptom of consultation.
d) There is uterine sub involution.
e) Most lesions begin in uterus.
765.The following are poor prognostic factors in trophoblastic disease for malignant
change.
a) Disease following normal delivery
b) beta-HCG more than 80,000 miu/mililitre
c) Disease following an abortion
d) A and C above
e) A and B above .
766.Risk factors for Perinatal death include:
a) Premature rupture of membranes.
b) Foetal hypoxia of unknown cause.
c) Chorioamnionitis.
d) Abruptio placenta.
e) Vasa praevia.
767.Maternal mortality.
a) Is the death of a woman while pregnant or within 42 days of termination of
pregnancy, including accidental and incidental causes.
b) Direct obstetrics death- resulting from obstetrics complications of pregnancy,
labour or the puerperium.
c) One of the most common indirect obstetric deaths in Mbarara Referral hospital is
puerperal sepsis.
d) Haemorrhage remains an important cause of direct matenal death.
e) All above are true.
768.APH.
a) Abortion is a common cause of APH.
b) In patient with placenta praevia type III AROM should be done followed by labour
induction.
c) In a patient with abruptio placenta faintness and collapse may occur without
external bleeding.
d) FHR absence in a severe abruption always means IUFD.
e) Severe abruption with IUFD and DIC should be delivered immediately by
emergency C/section
769.Abruptio placenta
a) DIC is the commonest complication
b) Amniotic fluid embolism should not occur
c) Couvelaire uterus is always associated with DIC.
d) Trauma is the commonest cause in Uganda
e) Amniotomy is only done when induction is indicated
770.Placenta Previa management
a) Tocolytics are indicated in preterm management
b) Vaginal delivery should always be attempted if the mother is not severely affected
c) PPH should be anticipated
d) When mild bleeding at term, mother stable, labour should be awaited
e) All the above.
771.About pre-eclampsia.
a) Commonly affecting primiparous or multiparous with new husband.
b) The incidence is around 40 % of pregnancy.
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c) Impaired trophoblast invasion seems to be the most important factor in the
pathogenesis.
d) Immunological factor are involved.
e) Vascular endothelial growth factors increased.
772.About eclampsia’s management.
a) Control of the fits.
b) Control the blood pressure.
c) Plan to immediate delivery.
d) Magnesium sulphate is the best to prevent fit recurrences.
e) Caesarean section is always indicated.
773.Which statements are true and false?
a) Magnesium Sulphate is the drug of election to reduced B.P
b) Labetalol is not useful in the treatment of Pre-eclampsia.
c) Antihypertensive therapy in pre- eclampsia should be use when diastolic B.P is
>105 to 110 mmHg.
d) Hydralazine is associated with significantly more maternal hypotension than other
antihypertensive drugs.
e) Aldomet is the drug of election in pre-existing hypertension.
774.The most common presenting symptom of eclamptic patient is.
a) Profuse vaginal bleeding.
b) Abdominal pain.
c) Dyspareunia.
d) Convulsions.
e) Vomiting.
775.About hypertension during pregnancy.
a) Chronic hypertension is more common in nulliparous.
b) Pre- eclampsia is hypertension plus oedema.
c) Pre- eclampsia is hypertension plus Proteinuria after 20 WOA.
d) Unclassified hypertension is hypertension in a patient with previous renal
damage.
e) Is a common cause of admission in our hospital
776.Risk factors for postpartum endometritis include.
a) Prolonged labour.
b) Prolonged rupture of membranes.
c) Multiple vaginal exams.
d) Prolonged monitoring with intrauterine catheter.
e) Breast feeding
777.All the following factors affect wound healing
a) Nutrition.
b) Infection.
c) Anaemia.
d) High concentrations of vitamin c.
e) None of above.
778.The following are true about puerperal infection.
a) It is the infection of the genital tract of a woman while pregnant or after delivery.
b) The commonest site of infection is episiotomy wound.
c) Caesarean section has the greatest risk for infection.
d) Endometritis is the commonest infection.
e) None of the above.
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779.Complications of obstructed labour.
a) Neonatal sepsis.
b) Death.
c) PPH
d) Rectovaginal fistula
e) All the above.
780.Prevention of obstructed labour.
a) Use of partograph in labour.
b) Treatment of malaria
c) Use of TBS.
d) Good nutrition in childhood
e) Timely referrals.
781.Mode of delivery in obstructed labour.
a) Symphysiotomy is method of choice.
b) Forceps may be used.
c) Should be always by c/section.
d) Vaginal delivery is contraindicated.
e) Destructive operations always done.
782.The following favours MTCT of HIV
a) High viral load
b) Type 1 HIV
c) High CD4 count
d) Sero conversion in pregnancy
e) HAART.
783.In PMTCT
a) The primary means by which an infant can become infected with HIV is through
sexual intercourse
b) The primary means by which an infant can become infected with HIV is through
use of unsterilised instruments
c) The primary means by which an infant can become infected with HIV is through
mother to child
d) Mixed feeding has no major effect on transmission if the infant has no oral sores.
e) All the above are true
784.National HIV prevention strategies include
a) Primary Prevention of HIV and other STIs through ABC model
b) Premarital HIV screening
c) Pre -conception HIV screening
d) PMTCT in HIV positive pregnant mothers
e) All the above
785.About H.I.V infection. Mark T or F
a) ART naïve means that the client is not on any ARV including History of taking NVP
for PMTCT.
b) HIV is transmitted to the infant during breast feeding because HIV is present in
breast milk and yet the babies gut cells are susceptible to HIV infection.
c) AZT 300mg twice daily starting at 36 WOG till delivery and for I week after delivery
+ AZT syrup 5mg/kg twice daily for 7 days given to the infant is the regimen of
choice.
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d) During labour and delivery the foetus may become infected as a result of maternal
– foetus blood exchange during contractions or mucous membranes as a result of
trauma or foetal swallowing of HIV containing blood or maternal secretions in the
birth canal.
e) All the above.
786.In PMTCT.
a) TRRD means an HIV positive mother has died.
b) TR means tested and results are reactive.
c) Nevirapine tablet is given to the mother as soon as labour is established
d) Lower rates of stillbirths have been reported in HIV positive mother.
e) The entire above are false.
787.Causes of Uterine rupture include.
a) Obstructed labour.
b) Previous caesarean section.
c) Manual removal of placenta.
d) Injudicious use of oxytocic drugs.
e) Premature labour.
788.Indications for elective caesarean section:
a) Successfully Repaired VVF.
b) Cord prolapse with a pulsatile cord.
c) Abruptio placenta with IUFD.
d) Vasa praevia.
e) Two previous abdominal scar.
789.Immediate complications for caesarean section include:
a) Severe haemorrhage.
b) Injure to neighbours organs.
c) Infections.
d) Haemorrhage.
e) Intestinal obstruction
790.About Malaria in pregnancy.
a) Can cause preterm deliveries.
b) Can lead to maternal death.
c) Anaemia is the commonest complication.
d) Can cause IUGR.
e) Renal failure can be a complication.
791.Malaria in pregnancy.
a) Coma, severe anaemia and convulsion, can be indicative of severe malaria.
b) Can be prevented by; using mosquito net, education, and fansidar administration
4 times during pregnancy.
c) Should be always treated with IV quinine.
d) Early diagnosis and treatment don’t help in preventing complications.
e) Primegravidas are protected against hyperparasitaemia.
792.The following are true of oral contraceptive pills
a) They decrease the risk of ovarian cancer
b) They are contraindicated in parous women with endometriosis
c) They are contraindicated in young nulliparous girls
d) All of the above
e) None of the above
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793.PID
a) Can affect women of reproductive age
b) TB is commonly associated
c) Doesn’t present with PV bleeding
d) Always associated with Futz – Hugh – Curtis syndrome
e) Bacteroides are commonly implicated.
794.About PID.
a) Fever, lower abdominal pain and vaginal discharge considered major signs.
b) C reactive protein, have a good sensitivity for assessing out come.
c) Presence of fluid in the pouch of Douglas in an abdominal ultrasound is
pathognomonic.
d) Bilateral hydrosalpinx is usually associated to sub acute and chronic PID.
e) In a pelvic abscess criteria to discharge patient is ESR less than 100 mm.
795.Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome.
a) There is left upper quadrant pain.
b) Salpingitis is not included.
c) N. gonorrhoea is not associated.
d) Viral hepatitis is a differential.
e) Occurs almost exclusive in women.
796.Predisposing factors for vaginal candidiasis include.
a) Pregnancy.
b) Good immune status.
c) Glycosuria.
d) Broad spectrum antibiotic therapy.
e) Chronic anaemia.
797.Trichomoniasis is characterized:
a) Vaginal tenderness and pain.
b) Non-irritant discharge.
c) Patchy strawberry vaginitis.
d) Copious offensive frothy discharge.
e) Dysuria.
798.The natural defence of the genital tract.
a) Is maintained by acidity of the vagina.
b) Is interfered with lactobacilli.
c) Is enhanced by oestrogens and progesterone.
d) Is improved by menstruation.
e) The entire above is false
799.IUFD
a) Can occur secondary to infection
b) Coagulation profile is vital
c) A C/S delivery is always safe
d) PPH is a possible complication
e) Misoprostol can be used for induction of labour.
800.About post-abortal care (PAC)
a) Antibiotics cover to prevent infection
b) Immediate post abortion family planning to avoid another pregnancy
c) Connection to other reproductive health services
d) All of the above
e) None of the above.
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