801.Shoulder dystocia.
a) Is a common complication.
b) Associated with maternal obesity.
c) Tortoise sign is not present.
d) Foetal clavicle fracture is a complication.
e) McRobert manoeuvre can solve about 70 % of all cases.
802.Ovarian tumour.
a) CA 125 is a tumour marker.
b) Dysgerminomas are common in reproductive age group.
c) Always present with ascites.
d) Serous adenocarcinoma is the commonest.
e) Bilateral tumours have a great probability of malignancy.
803.Operative features suggestive of malignancy in ovarian tomours.
a) Solid mass.
b) Large blood vessel in the surface.
c) Bilateral presence.
d) Ascites.
e) All of above.
804.The following factors can lead to male infertility.
a) Excessive smoking.
b) Morbid obesity.
c) Orchidopexy.
d) Vasectomy.
e) All above
805.The following are true about uterine fibroids.
a) Treated always by surgery.
b) Red degeneration more common in post menopause.
c) Hyaline degeneration is a possible complication.
d) Medical treatment has no benefits.
e) Cannot be treated by endoscopic surgery.
806.Criteria for medical treatment for uterine fibroid include.
a) Giant fibroid previously surgery.
b) Small fibroids.
c) Contraindications for surgery.
d) To earn time and compensate the patient for surgery.
e) To preserve fertility.
807.About genital prolapse.
a) Commonly affecting young women.
b) Always treated by Manchester’s operation.
c) Kegel’s exercise can prevent it.
d) Pelvic floor usually affected.
e) Can’t appear after TAH.
808.Tumour marker in gynaecology.
a) Alpha-feto-protein (AFP) for Endodermal sinus tumour.
b) CA-125 for fibroids.
c) CA-125 for ovarian tumour.
d) hCG for choriocarcinoma.
e) All the above are true.
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809.Vaginal hysterectomy possible complications.
a) Obstetric fistula.
b) Ureteric injuries.
c) Pudenda artery damage.
d) Vaginal vault prolapse.
e) Rectum lesion.
810.Genital prolapse risk factors:
a) Multiparity.
b) Chronic respiratory processes.
c) Big intra abdominal masses have no clinical importance.
d) Collagen’s diseases are no important.
e) Cultural habits.
811.Dysmenorrhoea.
a) There is pathology in spasmodic Dysmenorrhoea.
b) Secondary dysmenorrhoea is mostly confined to adolescent.
c) Primary dysmenorrhoea pain normally goes following pregnancy and delivery.
d) Oral contraceptives puts play role.
e) Investigations aren’t required.
812.In a patient with recurrent abortion, which of the following are possible causes?
a) Sigmond-Sheehan’s syndrome.
b) Cervical incompetence.
c) Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome.
d) TORCH infections.
e) Congenital anomalies of the genital tract.
813.The following are true postulate about pre-eclampsia.
a) Commonly affecting multiparous patient.
b) Chronic hypertension, renal disease and low socioeconomic status are risk
factors.
c) Earlier onset in the presence of antiphospholipid antibody syndrome.
d) Proteinuria and hypertension.
e) Haemolysis can occur.
814.A 23 y/old patient, G1 P0, at 33 WOA, complaining of headache arrives to your
consultation room, O/E; BP 166/112 mmHg was found , urine dipstick was positive
for protein ++. Which is the most adequate management?
a) Hydralazine 5mg IV every 15 min plus MgSO4, 14 g IM.
b) Hydralazine 5mg IV every 30 min, until BP is less than 160/100 mmHg, plus
MgSO4, Dexametazone 24 mg within 24 hours and induction of labour after this
time.
c) Hydralazine 5mg IV every 30 min, MgSO4, 14 g, Dexametazone 24 mg within 24
hours, after getting BP control, conservative management.
d) BP control and emergency c/section delivery.
e) None of the above.
815.A 17 year old, pregnant woman was brought to maternity ward, because was found
to have generalized convulsion at the central market. O/E. (positive finding)
unconscious, pale +, BP 156/100 mmHg, hyper reflexia, urine dipstick for protein +;
F/L 35 cm. V/E Cervix effaced, dilated 4cm, station – 1. How do you manage this
patient?
a) General measure, prophylactic antibiotic and immediate C/section.
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b) General measures, antihypertensive, MgSO4, resuscitation of the patient, foetal
assessment and emergency c/section.
c) General measures, antihypertensive, anticonvulsant and augmentation.
d) General measures, BP control, fit control, mother stabilization and conservative
management.
e) None of the above is true.
816.How does MgSO4 act in controlling and preventing eclamptic fit?
a) Decreasing the release the acetylcholine at the neuromuscular plaque.
b) Acting as physiological calcium antagonist.
c) Blocking excitatory amino- acid receptors.
d) All of the above.
e) a) and b) above.
817.The aims of the antenatal care are.
a) Promote and maintain health in pregnancy.
b) Detect and treat conditions pre-existing or arising in pregnancy.
c) Make a delivery plan.
d) Prepare for emergencies.
e) All of the above.
818.About antenatal care.
a) The more times the mother attends the clinic the better for her.
b) The more times the mother attends the clinic the less likely she is to get
problems.
c) All mothers who will get complications can be identified with good and close
monitoring.
d) a) and c) above.
e) None of the above.
819.A 26 year old patient, primegravida was admitted at Mbarara Regional Referral
Hospital at 37 WOA due to APH. This was the first time she had bleed and on physical
examination thw following finding were reported: MM : coloured and hydrated; RP:
88/ min; BP: 126/86 mmHg; Abd: FL 36 cm, cephalic, FHR: 146/min, V/V palpable.
Which of the following is the best option of management?
a) Digital vaginal examination to confirm diagnosis under general anaesthesia and
C/section if confirm.
b) Conservative management due to the good maternal conditions.
c) Digital examination, AROM and induction of labour.
d) Emergency c/section.
e) All of the above are right.
820.The following are predisposing factors for placenta praevia.
a) Repeated induced abortion.
b) Multi foetal gestation.
c) IVF.
d) Malposition.
e) Congenital anomalies of the uterus.
821.The following are true statements about abruptio placenta.
a) Maternal conditions are always related to amount of PV bleeding.
b) Is frequently related with low consumption of coagulating factors.
c) Smoking has no role.
d) AROM and induction is contraindicated.
e) Is highly related to PPH.
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822.A patient at 32 WOA was diagnoses of having a severe abruptio placenta with
intrauterine foetal death and DIC, which of the following is the best option to deliver
the patient?
a) General measures, resuscitating the patient and emergency c/section.
b) General measures, whole blood transfusion, fresh frozen plasma, IV fluids
emergency C/section.
c) General measures, whole blood transfusion, fresh frozen plasma, IV fluids, after
correction the DIC AROM and attempt to vaginal delivery by inducing or
augmenting labour.
d) None of the above.
e) All of the above can be used with similar results.
823.Multifoetal gestation.
a) Induction of labour is contraindicated.
b) Are not monitored by partograph during labour.
c) Always delivered by C/section.
d) 2
nd twin can be delivered by forceps.
e) PPH can occur with 2nd stage.
824.Malaria in pregnancy.
a) Maternal immunoglobulin A antibodies cross the placenta to the foetal circulation.
b) Falciparum malaria parasites grow well in RBC containing haemoglobin F.
c) Plasmodium Vivax is more common in East Africa.
d) Coartem is the first line during the first trimester.
e) Quinine is the 1st line in the second trimester for uncomplicated malaria.
825.Haematological findings in Iron deficiency anaemia.
a) Microcytic hyperchromic.
b) Macrocytic hypochromic.
c) Market anisocytosis.
d) The mean corpuscular value is low.
e) Mean corpuscular haemoglobin is increased.
826.Which of the following ARVs is contraindicated in pregnancy?
a) 3TC
b) Effavirence.
c) DD4.
d) Lamuvudine.
e) None of the above.
827.During the development of the female genital tract.
a) The coelomic epithelium migrates from the xxxx gut.
b) The coelomic epithelium forms the genital epithelium.
c) The coelomic epithelium forms the primordial germ cells.
d) The coelomic epithelium later forms the mullerian duct.
e) None of the above.
828.HIV in pregnancy.
a) Most of the transmission to the baby occurs during post partum.
b) Breastfeeding is contraindicated.
c) ARVs are not important.
d) Nevirapine alone is no longer used in Uganda for prophylaxis.
e) Elective C/section is helpful in decrease the MTCT.
829.Modified obstetric practices in PMTCT include the following
a) Vaginal cleansing with clean water
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b) Administration of 2mg/kg of Nevirapine tablets to a baby after 72hrs of delivery
c) An episiotomy may be performed when necessary
d) Delivery must be conducted in hospital
e) Elective C/S
830.An HIV +ve mother delivers a healthy baby. PCR confirms that this baby is HIV –ve
at birth. What will you do to prevent MTCT?
a) Breast feeding for only three months will protect the baby
b) Since the baby is negative, Nevirapine is not necessary
c) Replacement feeding with cow milk is the ideal
d) Wet Nursing is a recognized option
e) Condom use has no role in protecting this baby.
831.A G2P1+0 HIV +ve mother comes to clinic. Which of the following will you consider
a) Initiation of HAART even without medical eligibility
b) CD4 count will not influence the decision to start ART
c) 3TC, D4T, EFV is the combination of Choice
d) 3TC, D4T, NVP is the combination of Choice
e) Triomune is never given.
832.The perineal body is made of the following muscles.
a) Transverse perineal, Coccygeus, ischiocavernosus, levator ani, bulbo cavernosus.
b) External anal sphincter, ischiocavernosus, bulbocavernosus, levator ani and
transverse perini.
c) Bulbospongiosus, ischiocavernosus, transverse perineal, levator ani.
d) Bulbospongiosus, transverse perini, anal sphincter, levator ani.
e) None of the above.
833.Anatomy of the female genital tract.
a) The uterine artery is a branch of the terminal part of the aorta.
b) The uterine artery is a branch of the internal iliac artery.
c) The uterine artery is the terminal branch of the internal femoral artery.
d) The uterine artery is a branch of the obturator internus artery.
e) None of the above.
834.When monitoring a mother with the partograph.
a) If the graph reaches the action line you should do a C/section immediately.
b) If the graph leaves the alert line, you should put up oxytocin.
c) If the foetal heart slows down or increases you should put up fluids, give oxygen
and make the mother lie on her left.
d) If the graph reaches the action line, you should put up oxytocin immediately.
e) None of the above.
835.Shoulder dystocia.
a) Is a common complication.
b) Associated with maternal obesity.
c) Turtle sign is not present.
d) Rubin manoeuvre can be done to hyper flex the arms.
e) McRobert manoeuvre can solve about 70 % of all cases.
836.In PPH.
a) Blood transfusion is always required.
b) Blood transfusion may not be required.
c) Bleeding is from the uterus.
d) a) and c) above.
e) All of the above.
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837.Managing PPH.
a) Intra vaginal Misoprostol is effective.
b) Oxytocin 10 IU after delivery of the baby is always preventive.
c) Record keeping is the least important.
d) All of the above.
e) None of the above.
838.Analgesia during labour.
a) Pudendal nerve block is not recommended.
b) Is not recommended in active labour.
c) Is commonly practiced.
d) Narcotics are commonly used in MUTH.
e) Companion support in labour has shown to help.
839.Maternal changes in puerperium.
a) Return to normality is 2 weeks after delivery.
b) Return to normal 20 weeks after delivery.
c) Return to normal 42 weeks after delivery.
d) Return to normal 32 days after delivery.
e) None of the above.
840.The following are effects of progesterone in pregnancy.
a) Reduces vascular tone and BP increases.
b) Reduces vascular tone and peripheral temperatures increases.
c) Increases vascular tone and BP increases.
d) Increases vascular tone and BP decreases.
e) All of the above.
841.Lactational amenorrhea(LAM) method of contraception:
a) Is a permanent method.
b) Can be practiced when baby is 8 month.
c) Is about 80% effective.
d) Is highly when mother is started her periods.
e) All of the above.
842.Emergency contraception:
a) Combined oral pills are more effective than the progesterone only pills.
b) Progesterone only pills (ovreete) 2 doses 12 hours apart are enough.
c) Intra uterine device can be used within 7 days.
d) Is a routine method of contraception.
e) All of the above are false.
843.Vacuum extraction:
a) Is a spontaneous vertex delivery.
b) Commonly done in our unit.
c) Can be done on face presentation.
d) Smallest cup is ideal.
e) Analgesics are not required.
844.PID.
a) Infection of the lower and upper genital tract.
b) Cervicitis is included in the syndrome.
c) Bacteroides are widely implicated.
d) Chlamydia trachomatis is very common.
e) Does not occur in pregnancy.
845.Organism responsible for salpingitis.
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a) Mycoplasma
b) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
c) Escherichia coli
d) Actinomycosis.
e) None of the above.
846.CA-125 glycoprotein (tumour marker).
a) Is a tumour specific antigen.
b) Is only detectable in carcinoma of the ovary.
c) Cannot be detectable in normal women.
d) Is used to monitor patient on chemotherapy.
e) You get raised levels in PID.
847.Second look surgery.
a) Only done by laparotomy.
b) Aim is confirm cure and to assess the effect of chemotherapy in tumour mass.
c) Done after 2 years of 10 therapies.
d) Done after 1 year of 10 therapies.
e) None of the above.
848.Endometriosis.
a) Functional endometrial tissue in the myometrium.
b) Present up to 25% among the infertile women.
c) Endometrial tissue’s transplantation can explain all cases.
d) Increases phagocytosis of spermatozoids.
e) Affected patient is always symptomatic.
849.About endometriosis.
a) GnRH effective 100% in cure patient.
b) COC are also used and effective.
c) Surgery has important role.
d) Frequency is reduced with pregnancies.
e) Only present among reproductive age women.
850.Genital prolapse.
a) When a pelvic organ slips down and protrudes outside of the vagina.
b) Cystocele is when the anterior bladder wall slip down through the anterior vaginal
wall.
c) In a rectocele the rectum is prolapsed into the posterior vaginal wall.
d) Always treated with surgery.
e) Cannot be prevented.
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