851.POP-Q classification of genital prolapse.
a) Aa point is 3cm above the hymen.
b) Ba is the lowest point of the anterior vaginal wall (range from TVL to TVL – 2cm).
c) In a grade I rectocele, Bp point is 1cm above the hymen.
d) In a grade III uterine prolapse: C point is 2 cm above the hymen.
e) In a grade III cystocele prolapse: Aa point is 4 cm below the hymen.
852.Genital prolapse risk factors:
a) Multiparity.
b) Chronic respiratory processes.
c) Big intra abdominal masses have no clinical importance.
d) Collagen’s diseases are no important.
e) Cultural habits.
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853.About cervical carcinoma.
a) Ugandan women have high risk.
b) Absent of screening programs increase the risk.
c) Viral infections have the main role.
d) The prognosis improves with earlier diagnoses.
e) Can be prevented.
854.Management in cervical carcinoma and pre invasive lesions.
a) Stage 0 better treated by Wertheim operation.
b) CIN I a period of 2 years without action is advisable in high risk patients.
c) Radiotherapy can be used in stage IVb with high cure’s rate.
d) Stage III patients don’t need for palliative care.
e) LLETZ can be used in all pre-invasive lesions.
855.Dysmenorrhoea.
a) There is pathology in spasmodic Dysmenorrhoea.
b) Secondary dysmenorrhoea is mostly confined to adolescent.
c) Primary dysmenorrhoea pain normally goes following pregnancy and delivery.
d) Oral contraceptives puts play role.
e) Investigations aren’t required.
856.The following are known causes of female infertility:
a) Sheehan’s syndrome.
b) Stock-Adams-Morgatny syndrome.
c) Endometriosis.
d) Klineffelter’s syndrome
e) Meig’s syndrome.
857.In a patient with recurrent abortion, which of the following are possible causes?
a) Sigmond-Sheehan’s syndrome.
b) Cervical incompetence.
c) Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome.
d) TORCH infections.
e) Congenital anomalies of the genital tract.
858.You are on call at MUTH and are assessing a 16 year old patient with peritonitis and
septic shock due to a post abortal sepsis. Which of the following would you consider
in the management?
a) Broad spectrum antibiotic combination.
b) Patient resuscitation with 5 % dextrose.
c) Fluid challenge.
d) Blood and plasma transfusion.
e) Laparotomy as soon as patient’s condition allowed it.
859.Preventing fistula in obstetric care.
a) Development of primary health system is not important.
b) Improvement of transport facilities.
c) Adequate health policies.
d) Adequate vaccination’s programs.
e) Women’s rights empowering.
860.Criminal abortion prevention.
a) Improving accessibility to family planning method.
b) Maternal education level has no role.
c) Legalization of elective abortion.
d) Adequate sexual education programs.
e) Health policies are no related.
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861.Maternal death in Uganda.
a) 60 to 80 % are preventable.
b) Infections are among the first three causes.
c) Only doctor’s actions are needed to reduce maternal mortality rate.
d) HIV/AIDS infection is the commonest cause.
e) Malaria and post abortal infections killing more mother than HIV,
haemorrhages and eclampsia together.
862.Malaria in pregnancy.
a) Plasmodium Vivax causes cerebral malaria.
b) Plasmodium malaria causes relapses.
c) Chondroitin sulphate A receptors protect primegravidas against severe malaria
attacks.
d) Primegravidas are more prone to hyperparasitaemia than grand multiparous.
e) All pregnant women require only 2 doses of intermittent presumptive treatment.
863.The following species of malaria parasites cause relapse in pregnancy.
a) P. falciparum.
b) P. vivax.
c) P. ovale.
d) P. inguinale.
e) P. malariae.
864.Malaria in pregnancy.
a) Plasmodium ovale causes hyperparasitaemia.
b) Can present as acute pulmonary congestion.
c) Can be cause of pregnancy’s loss.
d) Plasmodium ovale causes renal failure in pregnancy.
e) The pigment haemozoin is directly responsible for the fever episodes
865.Components of essential obstetric care include.
a) Parenteral antibiotics
b) Parenteral oxytocic drugs.
c) Use of anticonvulsants.
d) Manual removal of placenta.
e) Manual removal of retained products.
866.About pre-eclampsia.
a) Can be complicated by DIC.
b) Never appear before 20 weeks.
c) Severe pre-eclampsia at 29 is an indication for immediate termination of
pregnancy.
d) Management protocol include: treatment of hypertension, prevention of fit, plan
for delivery, and chorial biopsy.
e) Renal biopsy is mandatory to establish definitive biopsy.
867.Pathophysiological findings in pre-eclampsia.
a) Placental growth factor is elevated.
b) Vascular endothelial growth factor is low.
c) Impaired trophoblast invasion.
d) Impaired trophoblast differentiation.
e) Immunological factor related.
868.Risk factor for pre-eclampsia.
a) Chronic renal disease.
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b) In vitro fertilization with sperm donor different from the husband.
c) Any placental ischaemia cause.
d) Heart disease.
e) History of DIC.
869.Drug use in severe pre-eclampsia.
a) Methyldopa is the choice during the crisis.
b) Hydrallazine 10 mg every 30 min until diastolic blood pressure is 100 mmHg.
c) Methyldopa plus atenolol in conservative management when there is not a good
answer to monotherapy treatment
d) Diazepam is the best to prevent fit.
e) Vein dilator can be used in refractory hypertension.
870.Antepartum haemorrhage.
a) Nitabush’s bands rupture is the explanation for haemorrhage in placenta previa.
b) Uterus surgeries are risk factor for abruptio placenta.
c) C/ section always should be done.
d) Can predispose to PPH.
e) Tocolysis is contraindicated.
871.Abruptio placentae.
a) Mild abruption during labour should be augmented and delivery vaginally.
b) Moderate abruption is better delivery by c/section is advanced cervical dilation
and maternal compromise are present.
c) Severe abruption, IUFD without DIC: artificial rupture of membranes and
induction.
d) Severe abruption, IUFD, DIC: correction of coagulation disorder and delivery by
c/section.
e) Severe abruption, a live foetus, mother stable, 6 cm dilated, should be delivered
vaginally.
872.Placenta previa.
a) 33 weeks, maternal instability, lung maturity absent: conservative management.
b) 37 weeks, 1st bleeding, haemodynamically stable: conservative management.
c) 32 weeks, placental praevia type 3, 1st, bleeding, uterine contraction present,
foetal heart rate 157/144/151: tocolysis, Betamethasone and c/ section after 24
hours.
d) Placenta previa type II, mild per vaginal bleeding: artificial rupture of membranes
and induction of labour can be done.
e) Placenta praevia type I usually bleeding earlier than the other, due to Braxton
Hicks contractions.
873.Monozygotic twins arise from.
a) Separation of one spermatozoon into 2 and then fertilization occur.
b) Separation of one fertilized ovum into 2 embryos.
c) Separation after 72 hours of conception results in diamniotic dichorionic twins.
d) Conjoined are results in separation after 2 weeks.
e) Never occurs by chance.
874.Multiple pregnancy is important because.
a) Is increased risk for intra partum complications.
b) There is need for more frequent antenatal review.
c) Early admission doesn’t affect outcome of pregnancy.
d) Perinatal risks are increased.
e) Anaemia is not a common complication.
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875.The following are common complication of multifoetal pregnancy.
a) Pregnancy induced hypertension.
b) Preterm labour
c) Foetal growth restriction.
d) Shoulder dystocia.
e) Puerperal sepsis.
876.Incidence of dyzigotic twin is influence largely by the following.
a) Maternal age and parity.
b) Maternal weight and height.
c) Use of clomifen.
d) Twin to twin syndrome.
e) In vitro fertilization.
877.The following is correct for twin pregnancy.
a) Diamniotic, dichorionic placentation occurs with division prior to morula stage.
b) Diamniotic monochorionic placentation occurs with division in the first 3 days of
fertilization.
c) Diamniotic monochorionic placentation occurs with division between day 8-12
after fertilization.
d) Monochorionic, mono amniotic placentation occurs with division after 8-12 days
post fertilization.
e) All of the above.
878.A gravida 2 with multifoetal pregnancy is found with BP of 148/100 at 38 week. The
management is:
a) IV and IM magnesium sulphate and immediate c/section.
b) IV and IM MgSO4, IV hydralazine, and immediate c/section.
c) IV and IM MgSO4, ultrasound scan and c/section.
d) b) and c) only.
e) None of the above.
879.A 42 year old primegravida who has been treated for infertility was told she had twin
by 10 weeks of gestation. She delivered a singleton at 40 woa. What are the
possibilities?
a) She aborted one of the babies before 10 wk.
b) The sonographer saw part of the bladder.
c) One twin could here died in uterus.
d) a), b), c) are true.
e) a) and c) are true.
880.Multifoetal gestation.
a) Triplets are better delivery by caesarean section.
b) Induction is contraindicated.
c) Monozygotic are commoner than dyzigotic twin.
d) Is commoner in primegravidae compared to multigravidae.
881.Twin pregnancy:
a) Have a high risk of admission to ICU.
b) Early admission prevents premature labour.
c) Elective c/s is done in primegravida.
d) All above are true.
e) The entire above are false.
882.Which of the following doesn’t include WHO recommendation regarding breast
feeding.
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a) Exclusive breast feeding should be protected, promoted and supported for 6
month.
b) To minimize HIV transmission risk, breast feeding should be continued for as long
as possible.
c) HIV infected women should have access to information, follow-up.
d) Avoidance of breast feeding by HIV infected mother is not recommended.
e) Exclusive breast feeding for 6 month is recommended for both HIV negative and
HIV positive mothers.
883.Cu T380A is:
a) An intra vaginal device containing 380 mm surface area of cupper wire around
the stem.
b) Is effective up to 8 years only.
c) Cause a foreign body reaction in the uterus.
d) Can be used to cause synaecheolysis.
e) Can be inserted immediately after normal delivery.
884.The following are steroidal contraceptives.
a) Nuva ring.
b) Mirena.
c) Mifepristone.
d) Cyclofem.
e) Progestasert.
885.The following syndromes are associates with male infertility.
a) Kallman’s syndrome.
b) Savage’s syndrome.
c) Asherman’s syndrome.
d) Polycystic ovary syndrome.
e) Sheehan’s syndrome.
886.The following are possible complication of intrauterine devices.
a) Syncopal attacks.
b) Abnormal menstrual bleedings.
c) Spotting.
d) Spontaneous expulsion.
e) Dyspareunia.
887.Vasectomy.
a) Leads to sterility after 10 ejaculations.
b) May cause impotence.
c) Involves ligation of vasa efferentia.
d) Can lead to primary testicular r failure.
e) Is reversible.
888.Depo provera. (DMPA).
a) Contains both progesterone and oestrogens.
b) Can cause breakthrough bleeding.
c) Is effective for 10 weeks.
d) Contains 3rd generation progesterone.
e) Return to fertility is immediate after terminating its use.
889.Vaginal foam tablets.
a) Actives ingredient is nonoxynol-8.
b) Act by causing endometrial thinning.
c) Cause a foreign body reaction in the vagina.
d) Are inserted after sex.
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e) Are spermistatic.
890.The following factor can lead to male infertility.
a) Excessive smoking.
b) Morbid obesity.
c) Orchidopexy.
d) Vasectomy.
e) Mumps infection.
891.PID.
a) Surgery is always indicated.
b) Hysterectomy may be done.
c) Chronic pelvic pain is a complication.
d) Clindamycin is good drug.
e) Infertility is a common complication.
892.Differential for PID.
a) Ovulation.
b) Cystitis.
c) Irritable bowel syndrome.
d) Sickle cell crisis.
e) Ectopic pregnancy.
893.PID.
a) Common among women and men who are sexually active.
b) Tuberculosis is most common cause.
c) Vagina is not affected.
d) Ovaries are not part of the syndrome.
e) Cervical motion tenderness present.
894.Sonographic characteristic of malignancies.
a) Thin septae.
b) Thick capsule.
c) Enlarged lymph node.
d) Thick septae.
e) Absence of fluid in peritoneum.
895.Tumour marker in gynaecology.
a) Alpha-feto-protein (AFP) for Endodermal sinus tumour.
b) CA-125 for fibroids.
c) CA-125 for ovarian tumour.
d) hCG for non-gestational choriocarcinoma.
e) All the above are true.
896.Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome.
a) There is left upper quadrant pain.
b) Salpingitis is not included.
c) N. gonorrhoea is not associated.
d) Viral hepatitis is a differential.
e) Occurs almost exclusive in women.
897.Ovarian cause of hyper androgenisms.
a) PCOs.
b) Hilus cell tumour.
c) Hyper thecosis.
d) Sertoli-Leydig cell tumour.
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e) None of the above.
898.Ovarian tumour.
a) Embryonal carcinoma is epithelial origin.
b) Dysgerminomas are common in reproductive age group.
c) Always present with ascites.
d) Dysgerminomas are common.
e) Bilateral tumours have a great probability of malignancy.
899.Myomectomy.
a) Can be done using a hysteroscope.
b) Can be done vaginally.
c) Is associated with heavy blood loss.
d) Is treatment of choice for a 60 year old woman with fibroid.
e) Can be done without HSG.
900.VVF repair.
a) Surgical repair is the only mode of treatment.
b) Ureteric catheters are inserted after closure.
c) Not advisable to repair during pregnancy.
d) An IVP is mandatory in all VVF.
e) Be repair at least 2 months after delivery.
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