901.The following factor affect wound healing.
a) Steroid therapy.
b) Proper apposition.
c) Immune status.
d) Infection.
e) Nutritional status.
902.Complete the following information about cervical carcinoma.
a) Cervical biopsy result: cervical carcinoma with parenchymal invasion 3mm on
deep and 5 mm horizontally is stage: ...........
b) Keratinizing large cell cervical carcinoma, non visible lesion, left hydronephrosis is
stage: .............
c) 80 % cervical carcinoma originated at: ............................
d) Vaginal recurrences after surgeries should be treated by:....................
e) The commonest mode of spread are: ......................; .............................;
.................................
903.The following are true about cervical carcinoma.
a) Cervical adenocarcinomas some times have no visible lesion.
b) Squamous carcinoma usually visible as ulceration.
c) Lower back pain is an early symptom.
d) Endometriosis can be misdiagnosis as cervical carcinoma.
e) Laparoscopic-assisted radical vaginal hysterectomy can be done form stage I to
III b.
904.Adjuvant radiotherapy is indicated if:
a) Large size tumour.
b) Deep parenchymal invasion.
c) In stage IV, previous surgery.
d) Lymphovascular space invasion.
e) When high risk HPV infection is present.
905.Cervical carcinoma and pregnancy.
a) Cervical carcinoma may lead to congenital anomalies.
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b) Pregnancy duration can be affecting due to treatment.
c) Cervical carcinoma diagnoses at 28 week, stage I b, should be immediate treated
by Wertheim-Meig hysterectomy with foetus in uterus.
d) Cervical carcinoma diagnoses at 20 week, stage III a, the patient should be
consented to be treated by radiotherapy with foetus in uterus.
e) Stage 0, can be treated by Conization before 24 weeks.
906.Cervical carcinoma screening.
a) The screening interval should de always every 3 year.
b) Should be discontinued after 55 years old.
c) After TAH due to benign process can be discontinued.
d) After treatment for any malignant disease should be every year after 3 month of
the operation.
e) Should be more frequent in women younger than 30 year.
907.A patient asks you the following question. What causes bleeding after my periods
when it is not a miscarriage? Chose the wrights possibilities.
a) Uterine fibroid.
b) Endometrial hyperplasia.
c) Cervical carcinoma.
d) Asherman’s syndrome.
e) Cervical polyps.
908.The following are true about endometrial carcinoma.
a) Smoking reduces the risk.
b) 95 % are non hormonal dependant tumour.
c) Endometrial hyperplasia has no relation.
d) Stage III the tumour is yet limited to the uterus.
e) Oophorectomy is not indicated when surgical treatment is considered.
909.About caesarean section.
a) Is always indicated in transverse lie, before the onset of labour.
b) Elective caesarean section should be done in all patients with IUGR.
c) Conjoined twin are better delivered by a transverse incision.
d) Secondary PPH is a late complication.
e) Has no role in puerperal infection.
910.Regarding caesarean section technique.
a) Prophylaxis antibiotic is only indicated for high risk patient.
b) Skin soaking has no role in infection-prevention.
c) Uterus should be opened with the blade.
d) Uterus should be closed with two running stitches layer of thick absorbable
suture.
e) Absorbable suture are better to rectos sheath closure.
911.About uterine prolapse.
a) Partial colpocleisis can be done when extensive surgeries are contraindicated.
b) Collagens diseases can be a predisposing factor.
c) Vaginal hysterectomy is the only surgical management.
d) Pessaries can be used to avoid surgeries in high risk patients.
e) Is common among sport women.
912.Vaginal hysterectomy possible complications.
a) Obstetric fistula.
b) Ureteric injuries.
c) Pudenda artery damage.
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d) Vaginal vault prolapse.
e) Rectum lesion.
913.The following are true of endometriosis
a) It cannot occur in postmenopausal women as their endometrium is atrophic.
b) It occurs in the reproductive age because of the presence of gonadotrophins.
c) It can cause deep and superficial Dyspareunia.
d) All the above.
e) None of the above
914.The most common site of endometriosis is
a) The pouch of Douglas.
b) The ovary
c) The posterior surface of the uterus
d) The broad ligament
e) The pelvic peritoneum
915.The most frequent symptom of endometriosis
a) Infertility
b) Pain
c) Backache
d) Dyspareunia
e) All the above
916.A 35 year old woman presents with history of periods of amenorrhea followed by
heavy bleeding and denies using drugs. She wants to get pregnant. The following are
likely causes
a) Over stimulation of the follicular system of the ovaries by the hypophysis
b) Under production of oestrogens and progesterone
c) Under production of FSH and LH
d) All the above
e) None of the above
917.A 26 yr old married woman presents with infertility and amenorrhoea. She has a
normal satisfying sexual life. On work up she was found to be normal 46XX, no
oestrogen or progesterone nor evidence of androgens. She has poorly developed
breasts. HSG is normal. The following are possible causes
a) Testicular feminization syndrome
b) Mullerian dysgenesis
c) Gonadal dysgenesis
d) B and C above
e) All the above
918.BSN students delivered mothers and assessed the babies. Which was a true and
complete assessment?
a) Pink body and limbs, active limb movements, male pulse rate 105/minute, weak
respirations active sneezing and cough on suction: A/S = 9
b) Active limb movements, pink body, pulse rate 105/minute blue fingers good
respiration, female and active sneezing on suction: A/S 9
c) Crying loudly, male , moving limbs actively, fights on suction, pulse rate
129/minute, blue chest: A/S =9
d) A and B above
e) B and C above
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919.A 30 year old mother had a caesarean section for abruptio placentae at 36 weeks at
6 am in the morning. Professor Perez found her anaemic and the dressing oozing
fresh blood. The following are true
a) He ordered re-opening of the abdomen as there was intra-abdominal
haemorrhage
b) He did an abdominal examination to rule a ruptured uterus
c) He ordered some investigations and talked to the students about APH while
waiting for the results
d) He ordered a pressure dressing to be applied to the wound as this was bleeding
from the wound
e) None of the above.
920.The following are poor prognostic factors in trophoblastic disease for malignant
change
a) Disease following normal delivery
b) beta-HCG more than 80,000 mIU/ml
c) Disease following an abortion
d) A and C above
e) A and B above
921.Treatment of endometriosis involves
a) Administration of gonadotrophins releasing hormone agonists to cause a pseudo
pregnancy
b) Administration of gonadotrophins releasing hormone antagonists to cause a
pseudo menopause state
c) Administration of large doses of oestrogens and androgens state to cause a
pseudo pregnancy
d) A and C above
e) B and C above
922.A 56year old lady presented with a small cervical lesion which bled to touch, she
reported that she had difficulty closing her left eye. She had nausea and loss of
appetite. She had a staring gaze and paresis on the right. No other pelvic lesions
were found.
a) This is Ca Cx stage four
b) The condition can be diagnosed by ultrasound
c) The diagnosis can be suspected from the previous history and confirmed by
laboratory investigations
d) She has Burkitt’s lymphoma
e) None of the above
923.The following are true of oral contraceptive pills
a) They decrease the risk of ovarian cancer
b) They are contraindicated in parous women with endometriosis
c) They are contraindicated in young nulliparous girls
d) All of the above
e) None of the above
924.The following are causes of early neonatal deaths in Uganda
a) Hyaline membrane disease
b) Foetal asphyxia
c) Bronchopneumonia
d) All the above
e) None of the above
925.Dr Kaposi did staging of carcinoma of the uterus; the following is a correct staging
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a) The uterus was sounded at 15 cm and there a bleeding lesion on the cervix;
stage= 3a
b) The uterus was 4cm long and the tumour was well differentiated
c) Prof. Kaposi got some suspicious currettings from the endocervix; stage=3
d) Prof. Kaposi got some suspicious currettings from the endocervix; stage=2
e) None of the above
926.Treatment of endometrial cancer involves
a) Tumour size reduction and chemotherapy
b) Tumour size reduction and radiotherapy
c) Hysterectomy and radiotherapy
d) Radical hysterectomy (Wertheim’s)
e) All the above
927.The following are true in the management of multiple pregnancies
a) They should be admitted at 36 weeks to reduce the incidence of neonatal
complications
b) Active management of third stage always prevents post partum haemorrhage
c) Caesarean section is indicated if the second twin is a breech
d) A and C above
e) None of the above
928.A gravida 6 para 4+1 was admitted with severe pre eclampsia, the following is true
a) After control of the blood pressure she should have a caesarean section as the
quickest mode of delivery
b) Her blood vessels show abnormal reaction to vasopressor agents
c) A bleeding profile is part of the work up to prevent disseminated intravascular
coagulopathy
d) A and C above
e) None of the above
929.During antenatal management, the following are true
a) Refocused ANC involves reducing the number of visits and improving the quality
of contact time
b) All mothers must have four visits only
c) All mothers should have a birth plan as this improves decision on making
d) A and B
e) A and C
930.The perineum is supplied by the following
a) Pudendal nerve
b) Inferior haemorrhoid nerve
c) Ilio-inguinal nerve
d) Genital femoral nerve
e) All the above
931.The following are mesodermal in origin
a) Kidney, male genital ducts, prostate, rectum
b) Testis, upper vagina, ureter, seminal vesicle
c) Ovary, ureter, lower vagina, prostate gland
d) Brain, oesophagus, rectum, uterine tubes
e) None of the above
932.The following are important investigations in disseminated intravascular coagulation
a) Partial thromboplastin time
b) Prothrombin time
c) Thrombin time
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d) A and C above
e) B and C above
933.About pre-eclampsia.
a) Thromboxane A2 is usually low.
b) Placental growth factor is elevated.
c) Placental growth factor is low.
d) Prostacycline is elevated.
e) Vascular endothelium growth factor is elevated.
934.In pre-eclampsia.
a) Methyldopa 3g/daily can be given as treatment during hypertensive crisis.
b) Diastolic BP below 105 mmHg due to medical treatment can induce IUGR.
c) The drug of choice to manage severe pre-eclampsia is Labetalol.
d) Mgso4 should be given to all patients with pre-eclampsia.
e) All of the above.
935.Elective preterm delivery is indicated in pre eclampsia is indicated in:
a) Diastolic BP 110 mmHg despite the adequate use of the appropriate
antihypertensive agents.
b) Laboratory evidence of end-organ involvement despite good BP control.
c) Platelets count between 50000 and 100000/mm3
.
d) Elevated liver enzymes.
e) b) and c) are false.
936.About APH.
a) Kleihauer-Betke test can help to establish the differential.
b) Placenta praevia type IIb is better delivery vaginally due to the lower risk for
bleeding.
c) Non obstetrical conditions don’t need to be rule out.
d) Tocolytic drugs are indicated in APH before 34 weeks.
e) History of PPH is a risk.
937.Ante partum haemorrhage.
a) Nitabush’s bands rupture is the explanation for haemorrhage in placenta previa.
b) Uterus surgeries are risk factor for abruptio placenta.
c) C/section always should be done.
d) Can predispose to PPH.
e) Tocolysis is contraindicated
938.Abruptio Placenta. Management.
a) Mild abruption needs emergency c/section independently of the gestational age.
b) Moderate abruption at 32 WOA: Tocolytic for 24 hours waiting for steroids effects.
c) Moderate abruption, mother in shock, at 34 wks: Resuscitation, amniotomy
and induction of labour with Misoprostol.
d) Severe abruption, IUFD, with DIC: correction of DIC, Amniotomy and emergency
c/section.
e) None of the entire above is true.
939.Abruptio placenta.
a) Fibrinogen’s degradation products and D-dimmer are always elevated.
b) Heparin is indicated during DIC management.
c) Is a common complication of severe pre-eclampsia.
d) MgSO4 can be used in chronic abruption’s management.
e) Amniotomy is contraindicated.
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940.Which of the following are not among of he comprehensive care for mother within
the context of PMTCT?
a) Clinical staging of the woman living with HIV.
b) Prophylaxis for OIs infection with co-trimoxazole.
c) RFT if eligible for HAART.
d) Nutrition care and counselling.
e) Family planning services.
941.Which of the following are not among the modified Obstetric care for PMTCT of HIV?
a) Reduction in using invasive obstetric procedure during labour/delivery.
b) Routinely delivery by elective caesarean section.
c) Vaginal cleansing with chlorhexidine when membranes are ruptured for more than
4 hours.
d) Use of instrumental delivery to accelerate 2nd stage.
e) All of the above.
942.The following are among the targeted categories for primary prevention of HIV.
a) Infants and children.
b) The adolescents and young people.
c) The adult of reproductive age.
d) Women living with HIV and their families.
e) All of the above.
943.Recommendations for safer breastfeeding in the context of HIV include:
a) Avoid infections during breastfeeding.
b) Seek immediate treatment for cracked nipples, infant mouth sores.
c) Mixed feeding.
d) a) and b) above are false.
e) All of the above.
944.About multiple pregnancy.
a) There is not significant increase in obstetric complications.
b) Risk of obstetric complications is slightly increased.
c) Perinatal morbidity/mortality is reduced.
d) At 2 years old, infant mortality rate of twins is the same as that of singletons.
e) Is common in blacks.
945.The following are true about multifoetal gestation.
a) Dizygotic twins are from the same spermatozoa.
b) Dizygotic twins are not from the same spermatozoa.
c) Monozygotic twins are not from the same spermatozoa.
d) Monozygotic twins are from the same spermatozoa.
e) b) and d) above.
946.The foetal heart rate during labour.
a) Decreases with a contraction.
b) Increases with a contraction.
c) Shows no changes with a contraction.
d) Starts to recover a contraction stops.
e) All the above.
947.The dangers of vacuum extraction include.
a) APH.
b) Ruptured uterus.
c) Intrauterine foetal death.
d) PPH.
e) Acute foetal distress.
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948.About breech presentation.
a) Delivery can be performed by TBA.
b) Rotation to the sacrum anterior position may be facilitated.
c) Assessment of labour progression should be done at closer interval than for
cephalic presentation.
d) Footling breech is better delivered by caesarean section.
e) All of the above.
949.Malaria in pregnancy.
a) Sequestration of infected red blood cell can occur in the placenta.
b) IUGR is a complication.
c) Pre-eclampsia can appear as a consequence.
d) Coartem is indicated for all non complicated malaria.
e) Increases risk for MTCT of HIV.
950.Lumefantrine/artesunate is indicated during pregnancy for:
a) As 1st line in non complicated malaria in the 1st trimester.
b) As 1st line for complicated malaria in the 2nd trimester.
c) As 2nd line for non complicated malaria in the 2nd trimester.
d) After giving IV quinine for complicated malaria at any gestational age.
e) None of the entire above.
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