MCQs for OBGYN 21

 951.The following are contraindications for vaginal birth after a caesarean section.

a) Previous classical caesarean section.

b) Previous transverse low-segment incision.

c) Surgeon opinion.

d) Previous uterine rupture.

e) Mother decision.

952.The following are immediate complications for caesarean section.

a) Haemorrhages.

b) Secondary post partum haemorrhage.

c) Lesion of neighbour organs.

d) Infections.

e) Amniotic fluids embolization.

953.Classical c/section is:

a) Vertical incision done in the upper uterine segment.

b) Vertical incision made in the lower uterine segment.

c) Vertical incision extended from the upper to the lower uterine segment.

d) Transverse incision made in the lower uterine segment.

e) None of the above.

954.About labour.

a) Is divided into two stages.

b) Latent phase is considered since the uterine contractions are started until the

moment the cervix reaches a dilatation of 5 cm.

c) Active phase is considered from 4 cm to 10 cm.

d) Second stage commencement is at 9 cm.

e) Maximum slope is part of the second stage.

955.Partograph in labour.

a) Satisfactory progress means that the plot of cervical dilatation remain on or at

the left of the ALERT line.

b) If the patient’s partograph crossed the alert line immediate augmentation is

needed.

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c) If the patient’s partograph crosses the action line emergency c/section should be

done.

d) The longest normal time for latent phase in a multiparous woman is 20.1 hours.

e) The longest normal time for second stage for a nulliparous woman is 1.1 h.

956.The following are factors related to dystocia.

a) Maternal Age

b) Gestational Diabetes

c) POP

d) Maternal exhaustion

e) Macrosomic foetus

957.The following are risk factors for PPH except:

a) Nitroglycerine use.

b) Pre-eclampsia.

c) IUFD.

d) Amniotic fluid embolization.

e) Vasa praevia.

958.About lo-feminal.

a) Is a combined injectable plan.

b) It contains ethinylestradiol and laevonorgestrel

c) It is a COC.

d) It is an ooestrogenic preparation for HRT

e) None of above.

959.A woman on COC missed a pill on her 5th day of the cycle. What should be done?

a) She should take another pill as soon as possible.

b) She should take another pill and use another contraceptive method for the rest of

the cycle.

c) She should stop the pills and start another pack.

d) She missed the pill and had unprotected sex: she should consider emergency

contraception.

e) None of the above.

960.About Norplant II.

a) Is a combined implant.

b) It is effective up to 5 years.

c) It is effective up to 7 years.

d) Can be used during the perimenopausal period.

e) None of the above.

961.About pelvic inflammatory disease.

a) Is a polymicrobial infection.

b) Chlamydia causes Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome.

c) N. Gonorrhoea is the commonest causative agent of pelvic abscesses.

d) B Fragilis is commonly involved.

e) CA-125 commonly elevated.

962. About Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome.

a) It is caused by Bacteroides fragilis.

b) Involves salpingitis, ascites and perihepatitis.

c) Should be treated surgically.

d) Right upper quadrant pain can be the presenting form.

e) All of the above.

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963.About sub clinical PID.

a) Defined as the presence of neutrophils and plasma cells in the endometrial tissue.

b) Commonly asymptomatic.

c) Bacterial vaginosis is a risk factor.

d) Plasma cell Endometritis is highly sensitive in diagnosing PID.

e) Chlamydia and N gonorrhoea are commonly associated.

964.The following are steroidal contraceptives.

a) Nuva ring.

b) Mirena.

c) Mifepristone.

d) Cyclofem.

e) Progestasert.

965.The following are sign of malignancy in ovarian masses.

a) Solid masses are present.

b) Giant cyst.

c) Tumour present in both age extremes.

d) Positive tumours marker.

e) VEGF positive.

966.Second look surgery.

a) Always done by laparotomy.

b) Only done for patients treated by radiotherapy.

c) It is done for remnant tumour removal.

d) Used in cervical carcinoma follow up.

e) None of the above.

967.A 30 year old patient presented to an infertility clinic c/o recurrent pregnancy

loss. Which of the following factors would you investigate?

a) Rubella infection.

b) Fallopian tubes patency.

c) Cervical competence.

d) Antiphospholipid antibodies.

e) Uterine congenital anomalies.

968.Which among the following are not common causes of female infertility?

a) Sheehan’s syndrome.

b) Marfan’s syndrome.

c) Meig’s syndrome.

d) Paget’s disease.

e) All of the above.

969.The following syndromes are associates with male infertility.

a) Kallman’s syndrome.

b) Savage’s syndrome.

c) Asherman’s syndrome.

d) Polycystic ovary syndrome.

e) Sheehan’s syndrome

970.In primary dysmenorrhoea.

a) Trend to disappear after deliveries.

b) Endometriosis should be considered.

c) COC can be given.

d) GnRH is the choice for treatment.

e) None of the above.

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971.In secondary dysmenorrhoea.

a) PID is a cause.

b) More common among teenagers.

c) CT scan is a very useful investigation in establishing the cause.

d) Cyclooxygenase inhibitors have no role in the treatment.

e) Breast tenderness is not associated.

972.About CIN.

a) Cannot be screened by visual inspection under Acetic Acid.

b) Patients who have not screening with cytology are at higher for advanced

carcinoma of the cervix.

c) CIN I should always be treated by cervical conization.

d) Hormonal assay in menopause.

973.Radical hysterectomy plus pelvic lymphadenectomy is indicated in:

a) CIS.

b) Squamous cell carcinoma stages Ib2,and II a.

c) Squamous cell carcinoma stages IIa and IIb.

d) All of the above.

e) None of the above.

974.Cervical carcinoma.

a) Squamous cell carcinoma most often present with and exophytic lesion.

b) Adjuvant CRT has no shown benefits for the patients who undergo operations.

c) Adeno-squamous carcinoma often present with exophytic lesions.

d) A lesion extended to the lower third of the vagina is stage IIb.

e) Palliative care has no role in early stages.

975.About menopause.

a) Perimenopause is the period which precedes menopause.

b) It is define as amenorrhoea, hypooestrogenemia and elevated luteinizing

hormone.

c) It is characterized by amenorrhoea, hypooestrogenemia and low levels of FSH.

d) Multiparity shortens the age for menopause.

e) None of the above.

976.Depo provera. (DMPA).

a) Contains both progesterone and oestrogens.

b) Can cause breakthrough bleeding.

c) Is effective for 10 weeks

d) Contains 3rd generation progesterone.

e) Return to fertility is immediate after terminating its use.

977.A woman on her 40th birth day presents at the gynaecology clinic complaining of

irregular PV bleeding. The following are possible options:

a) Perimenopause should be considered among the causes.

b) Endometrial ablation by thermal balloon should be done immediately.

c) Transvaginal ultrasound can be of help.

d) Emergency D & C should be performed.

e) HRT should be started immediately.

978.Pelvic Organs Prolapse.

a) Commonly associated to collagen disease.

b) Always treated surgically.

c) Sims position commonly used for examination.

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d) Standing position is the best for enterocele diagnoses.

e) All of the above.

979.The following are possible option for medical treatment of endometriosis except:

a) Medroxyprogesterone acetate.

b) Danazol.

c) Premarin.

d) Goserelin.

e) Megestrol.

980.VVF repair.

a) Surgical repair is the only mode of treatment.

b) Ureteric catheters are inserted after closure.

c) Not advisable to repair during pregnancy.

d) An IVP is mandatory in all VVF.

e) Be repair at least 2 months after delivery.

981.The following factor affect wound healing.

a) Steroid therapy.

b) Proper apposition.

c) Immune status.

d) Infection.

e) Nutritional status.

982.Sonographic characteristic of malignancies.

a) Thin septae.

b) Thick capsule.

c) Enlarged lymph node.

d) Thick septae.

e) Absence of fluid in peritoneum

983.About pre-eclampsia.

a) Thromboxane A2 is usually low.

b) Placental growth factor is elevated.

c) Placental growth factor is low.

d) Prostacycline is elevated.

e) Vascular endothelium growth factor is elevated.

984.In pre-eclampsia.

a) Methyldopa 3g/daily can be given as treatment during hypertensive crisis.

b) Diastolic BP below 105 mmHg due to medical treatment can induce IUGR.

c) The drug of choice to manage severe pre-eclampsia is Labetalol.

d) MgSO4 should be given to all patients with pre-eclampsia.

e) All of the above.

985.Elective preterm delivery is indicated in pre eclampsia is indicated in:

a) Diastolic BP  110 mmHg despite the adequate use of the appropriate

antihypertensive agents.

b) Laboratory evidence of end-organ involvement despite good BP control.

c) Platelets count between 50000 and 100000/mm3

.

d) Elevated liver enzymes.

e) b) and c) are false.

986.About APH.

a) Kleihauer-Betke test can help to establish the differential.

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b) Placenta praevia type IIb is better delivery vaginally due to the lower risk for

bleeding.

c) Non obstetrical conditions don’t need to be rule out.

d) Tocolytic drugs are indicated in APH before 34 weeks.

e) History of PPH is a risk.

987.Placenta praevia.

a) Repetitive induced abortion is a risk factor.

b) Placenta accreta is frequently associated.

c) Primiparous women are at higher risk.

d) Always presented with painless PV bleeding.

e) None of the above.

988.Abruptio Placenta. Management.

a) Mild abruption needs emergency c/section independently of the gestational age.

b) Moderate abruption at 32 WOA: Tocolytic for 24 hours waiting for steroids

effects.

c) Moderate abruption, mother in shock, at 34 wks: Resuscitation, amniotomy and

induction of labour with Misoprostol.

d) Severe abruption, IUFD, with DIC: correction of DIC, amniotomy and emergency

c/section.

e) None of the entire above is true.

989.Abruptio placenta.

a) Fibrinogen’s degradation products and D-dimmer are always elevated.

b) Heparin is indicated during DIC management.

c) Is a common complication of severe pre-eclampsia.

d) MgSO4 can be used in chronic abruption’s management.

e) Amniotomy is contraindicated.

990.Which of the following are not among of he comprehensive care for mother within

the context of PMTCT?

a) Clinical staging of the woman living with HIV.

b) Prophylaxis for OIs infection with co-trimoxazole.

c) RFT if eligible for HAART.

d) Nutrition care and counselling.

e) Family planning services.

991.Which of the following are not among the modified Obstetric care for PMTCT of HIV?

a) Reduction in using invasive obstetric procedure during labour/delivery.

b) Routinely delivery by elective caesarean section.

c) Vaginal cleansing with chlorhexidine when membranes are ruptured for more than

4 hours.

d) Use of instrumental delivery to accelerate 2nd stage.

e) All of the above.

992.The following are among the targeted categories for primary prevention of HIV.

a) Infants and children.

b) The adolescents and young people.

c) The adult of reproductive age.

d) Women living with HIV and their families.

e) All of the above.

993.Recommendations for safer breastfeeding in the context of HIV include:

a) Avoid infections during breastfeeding.

b) Seek immediate treatment for cracked nipples, infant mouth sores.

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c) Mixed feeding.

d) a) and b) above are false.

e) All of the above.

994.About multiple pregnancy.

a) There is not significant increase in obstetric complications.

b) Risk of obstetric complications is slightly increased.

c) Perinatal morbidity/mortality is reduced.

d) At 2 years old, infant mortality rate of twins is the same as that of singletons.

e) Is common in blacks.

995.The following are true about multifoetal gestation.

a) Dizygotic twins are from the same spermatozoa.

b) Dizygotic twins are not from the same spermatozoa.

c) Monozygotic twins are not from the same spermatozoa.

d) Monozygotic twins are from the same spermatozoa.

e) b) and d) above.

996.The foetal heart rate during labour.

a) Increases with a contraction.

b) Decreases with a contraction.

c) Shows no changes with a contraction.

d) Starts to recover a contraction stops.

e) b) and d)above.

997.The dangers of external cephalic version include.

a) APH.

b) Ruptured uterus.

c) Intrauterine foetal death.

d) PPH.

e) Acute foetal distress.

998.About breech presentation.

a) Delivery can be performed by TBA.

b) Rotation to the sacrum anterior position may be facilitated.

c) Assessment of labour progression should be done at closer interval than for

cephalic presentation.

d) Footling breech is better delivered by caesarean section.

e) All of the above.

999.Malaria in pregnancy.

a) Sequestration of infected red blood cell can occur in the placenta.

b) IUGR is a complication.

c) Pre-eclampsia can appear as a consequence.

d) Coartem is indicated for all non complicated malaria.

e) Increases risk for MTCT of HIV.

1000.Lumefantrine/artesunate is indicated during pregnancy for:

a) As 1st line in non complicated malaria in the 1st trimester.

b) As 1st line for complicated malaria in the 2nd trimester.

c) As 2nd line for non complicated malaria in the 2nd trimester.

d) After giving IV quinine for complicated malaria at any gestational age.

e) None of the entire above.