1001.The following are contraindications for vaginal birth after a caesarean section.
a) Previous classical caesarean section.
b) Previous transverse low-segment incision.
-146-
c) Surgeon opinion.
d) Previous uterine rupture.
e) Mother decision.
1002.The following are immediate complications for caesarean section.
a) Haemorrhages.
b) Secondary post partum haemorrhage.
c) Lesion of neighbour organs.
d) Infections.
e) Amniotic fluids embolization.
1003.Classical c/section is:
a) Vertical incision done in the upper uterine segment.
b) Vertical incision made in the lower uterine segment.
c) Vertical incision extended from the upper to the lower uterine segment.
d) Transverse incision made in the lower uterine segment.
e) None of the above.
1004.About labour.
a) Is divided into two stages.
b) Latent phase is considered since the uterine contractions are started until the
moment the cervix reaches a dilatation of 5 cm.
c) Active phase is considered from 4 cm to 10 cm.
d) Second stage commencement is at 9 cm.
e) Maximum slope is part of the second stage.
1005.Partograph in labour.
a) Satisfactory progress means that the plot of cervical dilatation remain on or at
the left of the ALERT line.
b) If the patient’s partograph crossed the alert line immediate augmentation is
needed.
c) If the patient’s partograph crosses the action line emergency c/section should be
done.
d) The longest normal time for latent phase in a multiparous woman is 20.1 hours.
e) The longest normal time for second stage for a nulliparous woman is 1.1 h.
1006.The following are factor related to dystocia. Could you correlate each one of them
to the correspondent P of dystocia?
a) Attitude ( )
b) Giant Gardner’s cyst (vaginal wall) ( )
c) POP ( )
d) Maternal exhaustion ( )
e) Unsupportive environment ( )
1007.Instrumental delivery is indicated in :
a) Secondary arrest of the descent of the presenting part.
b) POP.
c) Maternal exhaustion.
d) Prolonged second stage with border line pelvis.
e) Contracted pelvis.
1008.The following are risk factors for PPH except:
a) Nitroglycerine use.
b) Pre-eclampsia.
c) IUFD.
d) Amniotic fluid embolization.
-147-
e) Vasa praevia.
1009.About low-feminal.
a) Is a combined injectable plan.
b) It contains ethinylestradiol and laevonorgestrel
c) It is a COC.
d) It is an ooestrogenic preparation for HRT
e) None of above.
1010.A woman in COC missed a pill on her 5th day of the cycle. What should be done?
a) She should take another pill as soon as possible.
b) She should take another pill and use another contraceptive method for the rest of
the cycle.
c) She should stop the pills and start another pack.
d) She missed the pill and had unprotected sex: she should consider emergency
contraception.
e) None of the above.
1011.About Norplant II.
a) Is a combined implant.
b) It is effective up to 5 years.
c) It is effective up to 7 years.
d) Can be used during the perimenopausal period.
e) None of the above.
1012.About pelvic inflammatory disease.
a) Is a polymicrobial infection.
b) Chlamydia causing Fitz-Hugh Curtis syndrome.
c) N. Gonorrhoea is the commonest causative agent of pelvic abscesses.
d) B Fragilis is commonly involved.
e) CA-125 commonly elevated.
1013. About Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome.
a) It is caused by Bacteroides fragilis.
b) Involves salpingitis, ascites and perihepatitis.
c) Should be treated surgically.
d) Right upper quadrant pain can be the presenting form.
e) All of the above.
1014.About sub clinical PID.
a) Defined as the presence of neutrophils and plasma cells in the endometrial tissue.
b) Commonly asymptomatic.
c) Bacterial vaginosis is a risk factor.
d) Plasma cell Endometritis is highly sensitive in diagnosing PID.
e) Chlamydia and N Gonorrhoea are commonly associated.
1015.Elective laparotomy is indicted in a tuboovarian mass when:
a) The cause cannot be identified.
b) There is not adequate response despite an appropriate treatment.
c) Rupture.
d) To perform a biopsy.
e) All of the above.
1016.The following are sign of malignancy in ovarian masses.
a) Solid masses are present.
b) Giant cyst.
-148-
c) Tumour present in both age extremes.
d) Positive tumours marker.
e) VEGF positive.
1017.Second look surgery.
a) Always done by laparotomy.
b) Only done for patients treated by radiotherapy.
c) It is done for remnant tumour removal.
d) Used in cervical carcinoma follow up.
e) None of the above.
1018.A 30 year old patient presented to an infertility clinic c/o recurrent pregnancy loss.
Which of the following factors would you investigate?
a) Rubella infection.
b) Fallopian tubes patency.
c) Cervical competence.
d) Antiphospholipid antibodies.
e) Uterine congenital anomalies.
1019.Which among the following are not common causes of female infertility?
a) Sheehan’s syndrome.
b) Marfan’s syndrome.
c) Meig’s syndrome.
d) Paget’s disease.
e) All of the above.
1020.Which of the following can be indicated when investigating cervical factor in an
infertile woman?
a) Hydrohysterosalpingosonogram.
b) Hydrotubation.
c) Hegar’s test.
d) Cervical mucus immunology.
e) None of the above.
1021. In primary dysmenorrhoea.
a) Trend to disappear after deliveries.
b) Endometriosis should be considered.
c) COC can be given.
d) GnRH is the choice for treatment.
e) None of the above.
1022. In secondary dysmenorrhoea.
a) PID is a cause.
b) More common among teenagers.
c) CT scan is a very useful investigation in establishing the cause.
d) Cyclooxygenase inhibitors have no role in the treatment.
e) Breast tenderness is not associated.
1023. About CIN.
a) Cannot be screened by visual inspection under Acetic Acid.
b) Patients who have not screening with cytology are at higher for advanced
carcinoma of the cervix.
c) CIN I should always be treated by cervical conization.
d) Hormonal assay in menopause.
1024.Radical trachelectomy plus pelvic lymphadenectomy is indicated in:
-149-
a) CIS.
b) Squamous cell carcinoma stages Ib2, II a.
c) Squamous cell carcinoma stages IIa and IIb.
d) All of the above.
e) None of the above.
1025.Cervical carcinoma.
a) Squamous cell carcinoma most often present with and exophytic lesion.
b) Adjuvant CRT has no shown benefits for the patients who undergo operations.
c) Adenosquamous carcinoma often present with exophytic lesions.
d) A lesion extended to the lower third of the vagina is stage IIb.
e) Palliative care has no role in early stages.
1026.About menopause.
a) Perimenopause is the period which precedes menopause.
b) It is define as amenorrhoea, hypooestrogenaemia and elevated luteinizing
hormone.
c) It is characterized by amenorrhoea, hypoestrogaenemia and low levels of FSH.
d) Multiparity shortens the age for menopause.
e) None of the above.
1027.Hormonal assay in menopause.
a) Estradiol usually above 70 pg/ml.
b) Luteinizing hormone consistently low.
c) FSH consistently between 15- 25 IU/L.
d) Inhibin levels are commonly low.
e) All of the above.
1028.A woman on her 40th presents at the gynaecology clinic complaining of irregular PV
bleeding. The following are possible options:
a) Perimenopause should be considered among the causes.
b) Endometrial ablation by thermal balloon should be done immediately.
c) Transvaginal ultrasound can be of help.
d) Emergency D & C should be performed.
e) HRT should be started immediately.
1029.Pelvic Organs Prolapse.
a) Commonly associated to collagen disease.
b) Always treated surgically.
c) Sims position commonly used for examination.
d) Standing position is the best for enterocele diagnoses.
e) All of the above.
1030.The following are possible option for medical treatment of endometriosis except:
a) Medroxyprogesterone acetate.
b) Danazol.
c) Premarin.
d) Goserelin.
e) Megestrol.
1031.The following are possible treatment’s option for post menopausal bleeding.
a) Thermal balloon ablation.
b) Hysteroscopy with electrical ablation.
c) D & C for endometrial hyperplasia.
d) Hysterectomy.
e) HRT.
-150-
1032.The following are possible alternative option to HRT.
a) Tai Chi Chuang practice.
b) Raja yoga.
c) Vit D supplementation.
d) Calcium intake.
e) Selective Oestrogens Receptor Modulator.
1033.Modified obstetric practices in PMTCT include the following
a) Vaginal cleansing with clean water
b) Administration of 2mg/kg of Nevirapine tablets to a baby after 72hrs of delivery
c) An episiotomy may be performed when necessary
d) Delivery must be conducted in hospital
e) Elective C/S
1034.An HIV +ve mother delivers a healthy baby. PCR confirms that this baby is HIV –
ve at birth. What will you do to prevent MTCT?
a) Breast feeding for only three months will protect the baby
b) Since the baby is negative, Nevirapine is not necessary
c) Replacement feeding with cow milk is the ideal
d) Wet Nursing is a recognised option
e) Condom use has no role in protecting this baby
1035.The following statements are true about PMTCT
a) The sero prevalence of HIV among pregnant women in Mbarara region is 6.8%
b) The sero prevalence of HIV among pregnant women in Uganda is 13%
c) PMTCT interventions reduce transmission of HIV to infants by 50%
d) Breast feeding alone contributes 35% of MTCT
e) Family planning is important
1036.A G2P1+0 HIV +ve mother comes to clinic. Which of the following will you consider
a) Initiation of HAART even without medical eligibility
b) CD4 count will not influence the decision to start ART
c) 3TC, D4T, EFV is the combination of Choice
d) 3TC, D4T, NVP is the combination of Choice
e) Triomune is never given
1037.About waste management
a) Hospital, Blood banks and domiciliary make the largest source of Health care
waste
b) Yellow bin is for placenta and anatomical wastes
c) Sharps constitute more than 1% of health care waste
d) a) and b) are correct
e) b), and c) are correct
1038.About pre-eclampsia.
a) In the differential with other proteinuric disorders soluble fms- like tyrosine
kinase, placental growth factor appears to be useful.
b) In pre eclampsia is common the presence of specific systemic findings of disease
activity (e.g. low complements levels, red and white cells and/or cellular cast in
urinalysis.
c) Recurrence: Pre eclampsia is over three times more common in multiparous
women with a previous history of the disease than a nuliparous.
d) Pre eclampsia in prime gravid woman can predict remote cardiovascular events.
e) Pre eclamptic women are at high risk to develop some specific kind of cancer.
-151-
1039.About pre eclampsia.
a) HELLP syndrome with renal failure affects long term renal function.
b) LDH can be used to do the diagnosis of microangiopathic haemolysis.
c) All patients with diastolic blood pressure 100 mm hg should be admitted
prescribed bed rest.
d) A high level haemotocrit may be indicative o contraction of intravascular volume
and improvement in patient outcome
e) Early foetal growth restriction may be the first manifestation of pre eclampsia.
1040.During conservative management to severe pre-eclampsia in a patient with 32
WOA, (Methyldopa, Mg SO, ASA) a CTG is done and lose of the variability was found.
This is indicative of.
a) Acute foetal distress.
b) Chronic placental insuffiency and chronic foetal distress.
c) Possible infection coexisting.
d) Side effects of Methyldopa.
e) None of the above.
1041.Malaria in pregnancy:
a) Plasmodium vivax causes cerebral malaria.
b) Plasmodium malariae causes relapses.
c) Chondroitin sulphate A receptors protect primegravida against severe malaria
attacks.
d) Primegravidas are more prone to hyperparasitaemia than grandmultipara.
e) All pregnant women require only 2 doses of intermittent presumptive treatment.
1042.About MgSO4.
a) At 50 % concentration should be given IV to get fit prevention.
b) Act at the neuromuscular junction by blocking the acetylcholine release.
c) Prevent the Calcium entrance to the damaged cells.
d) Prevent convulsion by inhibiting epileptogens mediators.
e) At 12 meq/l serum level can induce cardio respiratory arrest.
1043.About hypertension in pregnancy.
a) The three main mechanism causing hypertension are: increased preload,
increased cardiac output, decreased preload.
b) The order to treat this mechanism in a pregnant patient is: post load (central or
peripheral vasodilator); preload (venodilator); cardiac output (β-blocker).
c) Sudden reduction of blood pressure levels can induce IUGR and/or IUFD.
d) Transient hypertension of pregnancy (group IV FIGO) should be treated with
central vasodilator.
e) Micro albuminuria can be a sign of pre-eclampsia.
1044.Physiopathology of pre-eclampsia.
a) Any event causing placental ischaemia is a risk factor.
b) Immunological theory has the explanation in the familiar predisposition.
c) Genetic information in the father has no role.
d) Impaired trophoblast differentiation/ invasion seem to have the main role.
e) VEGF/PlGF 1deffciency can be the starting even.
1045.Pre-eclampsia management.
a) 33 WOA, blood pressure 140/100 mmHg, urine protein xx, LFT and RFT normal:
admission, bed rest and oral antihypertensive treatment.
b) 33 WOA, 140/115 mmHg, urine protein xxx, blurred vision, vomiting; admission,
bed rest, oral antihypertensive treatment, MgSO4 50% IV.
-152-
c) 33 WOA, 115 mmHg urine protein xxx, blurred vision, vomiting and
hyperreflexia: admission, IV Hydralazine (5mg/30 min till BP is 120/80mmHg,
MgSO4 50% IM (14g) plan for immediate caesarean section.
d) 36 WOA, 140/108 mmHg, urine protein nil, asymptomatic, IV Hydralazine
5mg/30 min, after BP control, oral methyldopa.
e) 36 WOA, 140/110 mmHg urine protein xx, fronto-oocipital headache: Admission,
IV Hydralazine 5mg/30 min, IV MgSO4 20% and IM 50 %, Induction of labour
after BP control if bishop score > 6.
1046.Modified obstetric practices in PMTCT include the following
a) Vaginal cleansing with clean water
b) Administration of 2mg/kg of Nevirapine tablets to a baby after 72hrs of delivery
c) An episiotomy may be performed when necessary
d) Delivery must be conducted in hospital
e) Elective C/S.
1047.An HIV positive mother delivers a healthy baby. PCR confirms that this baby is HIV
negative at birth. What will you do to prevent MTCT
a) Breast feeding for only three months will protect the baby
b) Since the baby is negative, Nevirapine is not necessary
c) Replacement feeding with cow milk is the ideal
d) Wet Nursing is a recognised option
e) Condom use has no role in protecting this baby.
1048.The following statements are true about PMTCT
a) The sero prevalence of HIV among pregnant women in Mbarara region is 6.8%
b) The sero prevalence of HIV among pregnant women in Uganda is 13%
c) PMTCT interventions reduce transmission of HIV to infants by 50%
d) Breast feeding alone contributes 35% of MTCT
e) Family planning is important.
1049.A G2P1+0 HIV positive mother comes to clinic. Which of the following will you
consider
a) Initiation of HAART even without medical eligibility
b) CD4 count will not influence the decision to start ART
c) 3TC, D4T, EFV is the combination of Choice
d) 3TC, D4T, NVP is the combination of Choice
e) Triomune is never given
1050.About waste management
a) Hospital, Blood banks and domiciliary make the largest source of Health care
waste
b) Yellow bin is for placenta and anatomical wastes
c) Sharps constitute more than 1% of health care waste
d) and b) are correct
e) b) and c) are correct.
Nhận xét
Đăng nhận xét