1101.The following are causes of early neonatal deaths in Uganda
a) Hyaline membrane disease
b) Foetal asphyxia
c) Bronchopneumonia
d) All the above
e) None of the above
1102.Dr Kaposi did staging of carcinoma of the uterus; the following is a correct staging
a) The uterus was sounded at 15 cm and there a bleeding lesion on the cervix;
stage= 3a
b) The uterus was 4cm long and the tumour was well differentiated
c) Prof. Kaposi got some suspicious currettings from the endocervix; stage=3
d) Prof. Kaposi got some suspicious currettings from the endocervix; stage=2
e) None of the above
1103.Treatment of endometrial cancer involves
a) Tumour size reduction and chemotherapy
b) Tumour size reduction and radiotherapy
c) Hysterectomy and radiotherapy
d) Radical hysterectomy ( Wertheim’s)
e) All the above
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1104.The following are true in the management of multiple pregnancies
a) They should be admitted at 36 weeks to reduce the incidence of neonatal
complications
b) Active management of third stage always prevents post partum haemorrhage
c) Caesarean section is indicated if the second twin is a breech
d) A and C above
e) None of the above
1105.A gravida 6 para 4+1 was admitted with severe pre eclampsia, the following is true
a) After control of the blood pressure she should have a caesarean section as the
quickest mode of delivery
b) Her blood vessels show abnormal reaction to vasopressor agents
c) A bleeding profile is part of the work up to prevent disseminated intravascular
coagulopathy
d) A and C above
e) None of the above
1106.During antenatal management, the following are true
a) Refocused ANC involves reducing the number of visits and improving the quality
of contact time
b) All mothers must have four visits only
c) All mothers should have a birth plan as this improves decision on making
d) A and B
e) A and C
1107.The perineum is supplied by the following
a) Pudendal nerve
b) Inferior haemorrhoid nerve
c) Ilio-inguinal nerve
d) Genital femoral nerve
e) All the above
1108.The following are mesodermal in origin
a) Kidney, male genital ducts, prostate, rectum
b) Testis, upper vagina, ureter, seminal vesicle
c) Ovary, ureter, lower vagina, prostate gland
d) Brain, oesophagus, rectum, uterine tubes
e) None of the above
1109.The following are important investigations in disseminated intravascular
coagulation
a) Partial thromboplastin time
b) Prothrombin time
c) Thrombin time
d) A and C above
e) B and C above
1110.Breech delivery
a) Lovset’s manoeuvre is for delivery of the head
b) Mauriceau-Smellie manoeuvre is for delivery of the head
c) Entrapped (stuck) head can be delivered by forceps
d) Breech extraction is always done
e) Tortoise sign can be present
1111.Symphysiotomy
a) Risks include bladder injury
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b) Can be done when cervix is not fully dilated
c) Doesn’t need experience
d) Can be done in contracted pelvis
e) Head should be no more than 3/5 above the symphysis
1112.PID
a) Can affect men and women of reproductive age
b) TB is commonly associated
c) Doesn’t present with PV bleeding
d) Always associated with Futz – Hugh – Curtis syndrome
e) Bacteroides are commonly implicated
1113.Absolute indications for episiotomy
a) Small short primegravida
b) Foetal distress
c) Repaired VVF
d) Previous repaired 3rd or 4th degree perineal tear
e) Complicated vaginal delivery
1114.IUFD
a) Can occur secondary to infection
b) Coagulation profile is vital
c) A C/S delivery is always safe
d) PPH is a possible complication
e) Misoprostol can be used for induction of labour
1115.Incompetent cervix
a) We commonly treat by cervical circlage at 20 weeks of gestation
b) Ultrasound scan before the procedure is not necessary
c) The stitch is only removed after 37 completed weeks
d) Cause may be congenital
e) All the above
1116.Physiological management of 3rd stage of labour
a) Oxytocin 10IU IM is given on the anterior thigh
b) Controlled cord traction is done
c) No intervention is done
d) Practiced by mid wives and TBA’s in the village
e) Associated with PPH
1117.Refocused ANC
a) Is for all pregnant women
b) Is only practiced in hospitals
c) TT can be given in the 1st trimester
d) Repeat dose of TT is after 6 months after the 1st dose
e) Same as goal oriented ANC
1118.Preparation of a patient for surgery
a) Informed consent is important
b) Patient has no right to refuse operation
c) Catheter insertion is mandatory for all patients for surgery
d) CXR is routine
e) CXR is important in patients above 50 years
1119.Clinical parameter of gestational age.
a) Quickening is appreciated about 16 wks in multigravidas and 18 in primegravidas
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b) Foetal biparietal diameter accurate before 16 WOA
c) Foetal heart tones may be heard at 20 wks by Pinard stethoscope
d) Ossified foetal bone appears at 12 to 14 wks
e) Bimanual palpation is not necessary
1120.During embryonic development the trophoblast is
a) Endodermal in origin
b) Mesodermal in origin
c) Ectodermal in origin
d) All of the above
e) None of the above
1121.The following are true about the refocused antenatal care.
a) There is reduced mother health worker time contact.
b) It is cheaper on the mothers.
c) The fewer attendances are will give heavier clinics as more mothers come on
particular day.
d) There is less satisfaction to the mothers as they are seen less
e) None of the above
1122.About post-abortal care (PAC)
a) Antibiotics cover to prevent infection
b) Immediate post abortion family planning to avoid another pregnancy
c) Connection to other reproductive health services
d) All of the above
e) None of the above
1123.About management of severe pre Eclampsia
a) Severe pre Eclampsia should be managed as out patient after control of the blood
pressure
b) Magnesium sulphate should be used in all cases routinely
c) Methyldopa is the best option to treat the crisis
d) Aspirin 80 mg daily may help in preventing pre Eclampsia in patient at high risk
e) All the above
1124.About Eclampsia, pathophysiological explanation may be
a) The presence of amniotic embolization of the brain arteries
b) Vasoconstriction of the brain arteries with subsequent ischemia, infarctions,
oedema and perivascular haemorrhages
c) Because the hypovolaemia in pre eclamptic patient causing cerebral hypoxia
d) The hypercoagulability of the blood causes stroke and partial infarctions
e) None of the above
1125.About eclampsia
a) Difenyl hidantoine is the drug of choice
b) Difenyl hidantoine can be used as secure alternative in the absent of magnesium
sulphate
c) Delivery is indicated only after complete stabilization of the patient
d) Vaginal delivery is contraindicated
e) All the above
1126.The following are true about molar pregnancy.
a) Elevated serum hCG levels more than 40,000IU
b) Pelvic ultrasound assessment is needed.
c) TSH, T3 and T4 assessment.
d) Can be followed by a choriocarcinoma
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e) All the above
1127.An HIV +ve mother delivers a healthy baby. PCR confirms that this baby is HIV –
ve at birth. What will you do to prevent MTCT
a) Breast feeding for only three months will protect the baby
b) Since the baby is negative, Nevirapine is not necessary
c) Replacement feeding with cow milk is the ideal
d) Wet Nursing is a recognised option
e) Condom use has no role in protecting this baby
1128.The following statements are true about PMTCT
a) The sero prevalence of HIV among pregnant women in Mbarara region is 6.8%
b) The sero prevalence of HIV among pregnant women in Uganda is 13%
c) PMTCT interventions reduce transmission of HIV to infants by 50%
d) Breast feeding alone contributes 35% of MTCT
e) Family planning is important
1129.A G2 P1+0 HIV +ve mother comes to clinic. Which of the following will you
consider?
a) Initiation of HAART even without medical eligibility
b) CD4 count will not influence the decision to start ART
c) 3TC, D4T, EFV is the combination of Choice
d) 3TC, D4T, NVP is the combination of Choice
e) Triomune is never given
1130.About waste management
a) Hospital, Blood banks and domiciliary make the largest source of Health care
waste
b) Yellow bin is for placenta and anatomical wastes
c) Sharps constitute more than 1% of health care waste
d) a) and b) are correct
e) b), and c) are correct
1131.The following are predisposing factors for placenta previa
a) Repeated induced abortion.
b) Multi foetal gestation.
c) IVF.
d) Malposition
e) Congenital anomalies of the uterus.
1132.Malaria in pregnancy.
a) Maternal immunoglobulin A antibodies cross the placenta to the foetal circulation.
b) Falciparum malaria parasites grow well in RBC containing haemoglobin F.
c) Plasmodium Vivax is more common in East Africa.
d) Coartem is the first line during the first trimester.
e) Quinine is the 1st line in the second trimester for uncomplicated malaria.
1133.Haematological findings in Iron deficiency anaemia.
a) Microcytic hyperchromic.
b) Macrocytic hypochromic.
c) Market anisocytosis.
d) The mean corpuscular value is low.
e) Mean corpuscular haemoglobin is increased.
1134.Anatomy of the female genital tract.
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a) The uterine artery is a branch of the terminal part of the aorta.
b) The uterine artery is a branch of the internal iliac artery.
c) The uterine artery is the terminal branch of the internal femoral artery.
d) The uterine artery is a branch of the obsturator internus artery.
e) None of the above.
1135.When monitoring a mother with the partograph.
a) If the graph reaches the action line you should do a C/section immediately.
b) If the graph leaves the alert line, you should put up oxytocin.
c) If the foetal heart slows down or increases you should put up fluids, give oxygen
and make the mother lie on her left.
d) If the graph reaches the action line, you should put up oxytocin immediately.
e) None of the above.
1136.Shoulder dystocia.
a) Is a common complication.
b) Associated with maternal obesity.
c) Tortoise sign is not present.
d) Rubin manoeuvre can be done to hyper flex the arms.
e) McRobert manoeuvre can solve about 70 % of all cases.
1137.About ovarian tumours.
a) Dysgerminomas are common in the reproductive age group.
b) Serous cyst adenomas contain tissues all the 3rd germ layers.
c) Dermoid cysts are common in the under 10 year’s group.
d) Bilateral tumours have a great risk of malignancy.
e) Always present with Ascites.
1138.Germ cell tumour includes.
a) Dysgerminomas.
b) Endodermal sinus tumour.
c) Embryonal carcinoma.
d) Choriocarcinoma.
e) Teratomas.
1139.Operative features suggestive of malignancy.
a) Areas of haemorrhage in the tumour.
b) Large blood vessel in the surface.
c) Bilateral presence.
d) Ascites.
e) Presence of adhesions.
1140.The following statements are true about pre- eclampsia.
a) Is among the commonest cause of maternal mortality in MRRH.
b) SFlt-1 prevents the correct differentiation and invasion of the trophoblast.
c) Aspirin inhibit the synthesis of prostacyclin.
d) Thromboxane A2 is a potent vasodilator.
e) None of the entire above is true.
1141.Hydralazine use in pre-eclampsia.
a) Is vasodilator with central alpha blocker action.
b) Should be given 10 mg/ 30 min up to 30 mg as the maximum dose.
c) Ampoules containing 20 mg should be diluted in 20 ml of 5 % dext and given
over 10 min.
d) a) and c) above.
e) None of the above.
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1142.MgSO4.
a) Act by preventing the release of acetylcholine at neuromuscular plaque.
b) Prevent the entry of calcium to the damaged endothelial cells.
c) Stimulate the N-methyl-D-aspartate receptors.
d) Toxicity appears with concentration of 8 to 10 meq/L.
e) Pulmonary oedema is a common complication.
1143.The following are true about the management of pre-eclampsia.
a) Oral antihypertensive are indicated to all mild pre-eclamptic patients.
b) Antihypertensive treatment for adult pre-eclamptic patient should be started with
BP greater than 160/110 mmHg.
c) Foetal lung maturity induction is not necessary because the effect of
hypertension.
d) Patient with severe pre-eclampsia should be induced as soon as hypertension has
being controlled.
e) None of the entire above is true.
1144.APH.
a) Abortion is a common cause of APH.
b) In patient with placenta praevia type II ARON should be done followed by labour
induction.
c) In a patient with chronic abruptio placenta aspirin should be given 6 hourly to
protect placental blood flow.
d) FHR absence in a severe abruption always means IUFD.
e) Severe abruption with IUFD and DIC should be delivered immediately by
emergency C/section.
1145.Cervical carcinoma.
a) HPV and HIV association is an important risk factor in Uganda.
b) The presence of unilateral hydronephrosis is not a IIIb stage.
c) Stage Ib 1 can be treated with radical trachelectomy in patient with fertility’s
desire.
d) CRT combination after surgery does not improve the survival rate at 5 years for
stage IIb
e) All of the above.
1146.About CIN.
a) All CIN should be treated surgically.
b) CIN III or CIS is always an indication for TAH.
c) Visual Inspection Under acetic acid (VIA) is not useful in CIN screening.
d) A positive Schiller’s test should be considered as diagnostic for CIN.
e) Squamous Columnar Junction is not important when taking a Pap smear.
1147.Choriocarcinoma.
a) Can arise from any type of trophoblastic tissue.
b) It commonly appears after a partial mole.
c) Placental Site Tumour is easily diagnosed because the presence of chorionic villi.
d) Typical presentation is the presence of theca-lutein cyst.
e) hCG level higher than 105 IU/L is considered as poor prognosis.
1148.The following are true about Choriocarcinoma’s management.
a) Stage I should always be treated with TAH only.
b) Stage I can be treated with single CT agent.
c) Combination CT is indicated in stage II as initial choice independently of the risk
score.
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d) Stage III high risk should receive initially second line Combination CT.
e) When metastases are present the response to CT treatment is poor.
1149. Are the following statement true about Choriocarcinoma and it’s follow up?
a) Stage I can be allowed to conceive within the 1st year after treatment.
b) COC are contraindicated.
c) Stage III: hCG levels should be checked weekly until are normal during 3
consecutive months.
d) Stage IV if TAH is done second look surgery should be done within 6 month.
e) In stage IV hCG determination should be stopped after 1 year with normal level.
1150.The following are true about Physiological changes during pregnancy.
a) Maternal weight increases approximately by 0.3kg/week
b) Plasma volume increases more than erythrocyte volume
c) Cardiac silhouette elevated in chest X-ray
d) Systolic murmur present as consequence of valvular damage
e) Increased water retention
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