1201.The following are common physiological changes during pregnancy.
a) Uterus at term has increased the weigh 500 times.
b) Proteins metabolism increased around 1000g.
c) Fat storage is greater during 3rd trimester.
d) Hb level below 110 g/l in up to 6 % of all pregnant women.
e) Abnormalities in concentration, attention and memory.
1202.Cardiovascular changes during pregnancy include:
a) Increased circulating volume up to 30 % over the pre-conception values.
b) Increased circulating volume up to 45-50% over the pre-conception values.
c) Electrical axis of the heart right deviated.
d) Increased heart silhouette in x-rays.
e) Diastolic murmur can be present up to 90 % of all pregnant woman
1203.Changes in coagulating system during pregnancy include:
a) Reduction in platelets count.
b) Decreased in fibrin-fibrinogen circulating complexes.
c) Increased platelets aggregation.
d) Increased circulating levels of all coagulating factors excepting XI and XIII.
1204.Malaria in pregnancy
a) Plasmodium vivax causes cerebral malaria.
b) Plasmodium malariae causes relapses.
c) Chondroitin sulphate A receptors protects primegravidas against severe malaria.
d) grand multiparous are most prone to hyperparasitaemia than primegravidas
e) All pregnant women require 3 doses of intermittent presumptive treatment.
1205.Malaria in pregnancy causes anaemia by the following mechanisms.
a) Dyserythropoiesis
b) Phagocytosis.
c) Haemolysis of RBC.
d) Bone marrow suppression.
e) Erythropoiesis.
1206.Objective of performing an episiotomy include.
a) To prolong 2nd stage of labour.
b) Preserve integrity of pelvic floor.
c) Forestall uterine prolapse.
d) Save baby’s brain from injury
e) It is a routine in every primegravida.
1207.Features of a medio-lateral episiotomy include.
a) Extensions are common.
b) Dyspareunia may be occasional.
c) Postoperative pain common.
d) More difficult to repair.
e) Blood loss is less compared to midline episiotomy.
1208.Risk factors for perineal extension following episiotomy:
a) 2
nd stage arrest.
b) Vacuum extraction.
c) Small baby.
d) Persistent occipital posterior.
e) Nulliparity.
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1209.Regarding perineal tears:
a) 1
st degree: involves fourchet, perineal skin, vaginal mucosa, and underlying
fascia.
b) 2
nd degree: involves skin, mucosa membranes, fascias, muscle of perineal body,
but not the rectal sphincter.
c) 3
rd degree: external through skin, mucosa membrane, perineal body, and involve
anal sphincter.
d) 4
th extend through rectal mucosa to expose lumen of the rectum.
e) All of the above.
1210.Regarding episiotomy repair:
a) Cutting needle is advisable for vagina mucosa repair.
b) Adequate analgesia prior to beginning of repair is not important.
c) Meticulous haemostasis is needed
d) Anatomical re-approximation is needed.
e) Use nylon 2/0 for vaginal mucosa.
1211.Episiotomy:
a) All primegravida should be getting.
b) Is contraindicated in HIV positive.
c) May lead to puerperal sepsis.
d) Should be done without anaesthesia.
e) Don’t require mother’s consent.
1212.Risk factors for perinatal death include:
a) Premature rupture of membranes.
b) Foetal hypoxia of unknown cause.
c) Chorioamnionitis.
d) Abruptio placenta.
e) Vasa previa.
1213.Risk factors for disseminated intravascular coagulation include:
a) Abruptio placenta.
b) Pre-eclampsia/eclampsia.
c) Amniotic fluid embolism.
d) Use of hypertonic saline to induce labour.
e) None of the above.
1214.Multigravidas are at risk of:
a) Postpartum haemorrhage.
b) Anaemia in pregnancy.
c) Ruptured uterus.
d) Severe malaria in pregnancy.
e) Maternal depletion syndrome.
1215.Multifoetal pregnancy:
a) Triplets are better delivered by caesarean section.
b) Induction of the labour is contraindicated.
c) Risk for locked twins is always present.
d) Cord prolapse may happen.
e) Risk factor for PPH.
1216.Primegravidas are at risk of:
a) Severe malaria in pregnancy.
b) Pre-eclampsia/ eclampsia.
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c) Precipitate labour
d) Maternal depletion syndrome.
e) Obstetric fistula.
1217.About foetal lie:
a) Relate foetal long axis to maternal long axis.
b) Relate foetal long axis to uterine long axis.
c) Can be established with ultrasound scan.
d) 1
st Leopold’s manoeuvre is used to identify it.
e) Transverse lie needing augmentation.
1218.Which of the following are true about foetal aptitude?
a) Describes the relationship between the foetal and the pelvic inlet.
b) Describes the relationship between foetal parts.
c) Delivered is easy when aptitude is flexion
d) Delivery is easy when aptitude is extension.
e) Can change during labour.
1219.About a denominator:
a) An arbitrary selected point/part of the foetus.
b) In vertex presentation denominator is occiput.
c) In breech presentation the denominator is de anus.
d) In shoulder presentation the denominator in the clavicle
e) In brow presentation it is the nose.
1220.The following are true about position.
a) Relates the denominator to the lower uterine segment.
b) Relates the denominator to the maternal pelvic brim.
c) POP is always an indication for c/section.
d) LOA is a normal position.
e) ROP is an abnormal position.
1221.Which of the following are false?
a) POP can be corrected with obstetric forceps.
b) Vacuum extraction has no role in ROP position.
c) POP is frequently related to labour dystocias.
d) Episiotomy should be offered to all mothers with ROA position.
e) LOP position can be corrected spontaneously.
1222.Immediate complications for caesarean section include:
a) Severe haemorrhage.
b) Injure to neighbours organs.
c) Infections.
d) Haemorrhage.
e) Intestinal obstruction
1223.Recommendations for elective Caesarean section include:
a) Primegravida with breech presentation at 30 wks in labour.
b) Successful repaired VVF.
c) Severe pre-eclampsia Bishop’s score below 6.
d) One previous caesarean section history.
e) Multi foetal pregnancy (triplet).
1224.Caesarean section:
a) Most common mode of delivery in our service.
b) Is always indicated in previous caesarean section uterine scar.
c) Patients don’t need to be prepared.
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d) Is done in all cases of foetal distress.
e) Mother can start oral feeding after 6-8 hours.
1225.About frank breech:
a) It has the greatest risk for cord prolapse.
b) The hips are extended.
c) The knees are extended.
d) The knees are flexes.
e) The hips are flexes
1226.In complete breech:
a) The hips are flexes
b) The hips are extended.
c) The knees are flexes.
d) The needs are extended.
e) It’s the commonest type at term.
1227.The following are associated with breech presentation:
a) Polyhydramnios.
b) Oligohydramnios.
c) Multiple pregnancy.
d) Contracted pelvis.
e) Low socio-economic status.
1228.About breech presentation:
a) Most are delivered by caesarean section.
b) First stage of labour is quicker than cephalic presentation.
c) Cord prolapse is not a risk.
d) Forceps cannot be used for deliveries.
e) Can be managed by a TBS.
1229.The following are true about severe pre-eclampsia management:
a) Methyldopa is the treatment of choice during conservative management.
b) Toxaemic profile done weekly during conservative management.
c) IGR, HELLP syndrome, CID, visual disturbances aren’t among the aggravating
sign for pre eclampsia.
d) MgSO4 given for eclampsia prevention always IV.
e) All patient delivered by c/section.
1230.Obstructed labour:
a) Occur only in primegravida.
b) Cystic hygroma is a cause.
c) Wilm's tumour is not a cause.
d) Cannot occur when using partograph.
e) All of the above are false.
1231.APH:
a) Vaginal delivery is contraindicated.
b) Multiparity is a risk.
c) CID is a complication.
d) Is a predisposing factor for PPH
e) Foetal demise happening commonly in severe abruption.
1232.Postpartum haemorrhage:
a) Prostaglandins helpful in its managements.
b) May occur in subsequent pregnancies.
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c) Oxytocic drugs have no role in management.
d) Very common in primegravidas.
e) Is anticipated in mothers with APH.
1233.PPH:
a) Misoprostol (Cytotec) can be used to treat.
b) Hysterectomy is one of the mode of delivery is uncontrolled haemorrhage.
c) Can occur before labour.
d) Foetal demise is a risk factor.
e) Uterine atony is a common cause.
1234.The following are common complications of eclampsia:
a) Abruptio placenta.
b) Foetal distress.
c) Meningitis.
d) Cardiovascular accident.
e) Increased rate of c/section deliveries.
1235.Classic sign and symptoms of complete uterine rupture include:
a) Sudden onset of tearing abdominal pain.
b) Cessation of uterine contractions.
c) Absent of foetal heart.
d) Recession of the presenting part
e) All of the above.
1236.Rupture uterus surgical options:
a) Total abdominal hysterectomy.
b) Subtotal hysterectomy.
c) Repair of rupture alone.
d) Repair rupture and tubal ligation.
e) Laparoscope.
1237.Obstructed labour mode of delivery:
a) Should be always c/section.
b) Vacuum extraction may be done.
c) Forceps delivery is contraindicated.
d) Symphysiotomy can be done.
e) Destructive operation can be done.
1238.Prevention of obstructed labour:
a) Use of partograph in labour monitoring.
b) Good nutrition in childhood.
c) Development of appropriate and timely referrals.
d) Treatment of malaria in pregnancy.
e) Use of traditional birth attendant.
1239.About Ectopic pregnancy.
a) Laparoscopy has not role in diagnosis.
b) Arias-Stella phenomenon reaction rules out possibility of Ectopic.
c) Methotrexate use is recommended in ruptured tubal Ectopic.
d) Does not occur in primegravidas.
e) May co-exist with a PID.
1240.Predisposing factors to Ectopic pregnancy include:
a) Fertilization of an unextruded ovum.
b) Chronic salpingitis and recurrent PID.
c) Congenital tubal anomalies like diverticulosis, artesia and accessory ostia.
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d) Exogenous hormone use.
e) Previous tubal or pelvic surgeries.
1241.A family planning provider should be sure that a FP client is not pregnant if:
a) Client has not sexual intercourse since the last normal menses.
b) Correctly and consistently using a reliable method of contraception.
c) Client is within the first 7 days after normal menses.
d) Is within 4 weeks postpartum for non-lactating women
e) Is fully breast feeding
1242.Oral contraceptives.
a) Can predispose to venous thromboembolism.
b) Act primarily by inhibiting ovulation.
c) May cause amenorrhea.
d) Can predispose to ischemic heart disease.
e) Can be used as emergency contraception.
1243.The following are examples of third generation progesterone.
a) Misoprostol.
b) Gestodene.
c) Desogestrol.
d) Norgestimate.
e) Mestranol.
1244.Depo-Provera.
a) Contains the progesterone laevonorgestrel.
b) Is a combine injectable contraceptive.
c) Contains medroxyprogesterone acetate.
d) Can cause breakthrough bleeding.
e) Return to fertility is immediate after terminating its use.
1245.Norplant.
a) Is a progesterone-only contraceptive.
b) Contain only 5 sub dermal implants.
c) Is effective up to 6 years.
d) Return to fertility is immediate after its removal.
e) Can predispose to ischemic heart disease.
1246.Norplant II.
a) Contains progesterone only.
b) Is effective for up to 5 years.
c) Return to fertility after its removal is immediate.
d) Is inserted subcutaneously under the medial aspect of the arm.
e) Can predispose to thromboembolism.
1247.The female condom:
a) Can be reused.
b) Is made of latex.
c) Is stronger than the male condom.
d) Can be stored at variable temperature.
e) Can be worm up to 10 hours before sexual intercourse.
1248.The following can lead to male infertility.
a) Excessive smoking.
b) Morbid obesity.
c) Orchidopexy.
d) Vasectomy.
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e) Oligospermia.
1249.The following are common complications of eclampsia.
a) Placenta previa.
b) Abruptio placenta
c) Acute pulmonary oedema.
d) Disseminated intravascular coagulation.
e) Acute renal failure.
1250.Episiotomy
a) Is routinely performed on all HIV Positive prime gravid mothers in 2nd stage
b) Should only be repaired in cases of active bleeding
c) Must be performed after vacuum extraction
d) Can cause PPH
e) It is one of the components of modified obstetric practices of PMTCT
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