1251.The following are routine antenatal practices
a) RCT
b) Urinalysis
c) Sickling test
d) Hb estimation
e) HIV infant feeding Counselling
1252.The following favours MTCT of HIV
a) High viral load
b) Type 1 HIV
c) High CD4 count
d) Seroconversion in pregnancy
e) HAART
1253.In PMTCT
a) The primary means by which an infant can become infected with HIV is through
sexual intercourse
b) The primary means by which an infant can become infected with HIV is through
use of unsterilized instruments
c) The primary means by which an infant can become infected with HIV is through
mother to child
d) Mixed feeding has no major effect on transmission if the infant has no oral sores
e) All the above are true
1254.National HIV prevention strategies include
a) Primary Prevention of HIV and other STIs through ABC model
b) Premarital HIV screening
c) Pre -conception HIV screening
d) PMTCT in HIV positive pregnant mothers
e) All the above
1255.Mark T or F
a) ART naïve means that the client is not on any ARV including History of taking NVP
for PMTCT
b) HIV is transmitted to the infant during breast feeding because HIV is present in
breast milk and yet the babies gut cells are susceptible to HIV infection
c) AZT 300mg twice daily starting at 36 WOG till delivery and for I week after delivery
+ AZT syrup 5mg/kg twice daily for 7 days given to the infant is the regimen of
choice
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d) During labour and delivery the foetus may become infected as a result of maternal
– foetus blood exchange during contractions or mucous membranes as a result of
trauma or foetal swallowing of HIV containing blood or maternal secretions in the
birth canal.
e) All the above
1256.The following are abdominal Incisions
a) Misgav–Ladach
b) Cohen
c) Maylad
d) Kocher
e) Gibson
1257.Which of the following factors influence wound healing?
a) Site of the wound
b) Steroid therapy
c) ISS
d) Dehydration
e) Suture technique
1258.Wound healing
a) Site and size influences the rate of healing
b) Patients on steroids heal faster
c) Proper alignment of doesn’t affect wound healing
d) HIV is not important in wound healing
e) Pfannenstiel incision heals better than MSU
1259.Leopold’s manoeuvres include
a) Determination of SFH
b) Pelvic palpation
c) Lateral palpation
d) Auscultation
e) All the above
1260.An HIV +ve mother delivers a healthy baby. PCR confirms that this baby is HIV –ve
at birth. What will you do to prevent MTCT
a) Breast feeding for only three months will protect the baby
b) Since the baby is negative, Nevirapine is not necessary
c) Replacement feeding with cow milk is the ideal
d) Wet Nursing is a recognised option
e) Condom use has no role in protecting this baby
1261.The following statements are true about PMTCT
a) The seroprevalence of HIV among pregnant women in Mbarara region is 6.8%
b) The seroprevalence of HIV among pregnant women in Uganda is 13%
c) PMTCT interventions reduce transmission of HIV to infants by 50%
d) Breast feeding alone contributes 35% of MTCT
e) Family planning is important
1262.A G2P1+0 HIV positive mother comes to clinic. Which of the following will you
consider
a) Initiation of HAART even without medical eligibility
b) CD4 count will not influence the decision to start ART
c) 3TC, D4T, EFV is the combination of Choice
d) 3TC, D4T, NVP is the combination of Choice
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e) Triomune is never given
1263.About waste management
a) Hospital, Blood banks and domiciliary make the largest source of Health care
waste
b) Yellow bin is for placenta and anatomical wastes
c) Sharps constitute more than 1% of health care waste
d) and b) are correct
e) b), and c) are correct
1264.Modified obstetric practices in PMTCT include the following
a) Vaginal cleansing with clean water
b) Administration of 2mg/kg of Nevirapine tablets to a baby after 72hrs of delivery
c) An episiotomy may be performed when necessary
d) Delivery must be conducted in hospital
e) Elective C/S
1265.During ANC, the following are important and help out cone of pregnancy and
labour
a) Routine weighing at every visit
b) Routine pelvic assessment at 36 WOA
c) Routine discussion of place of delivery and mode of transport
d) Routine Hb estimation at every visit
e) a), b) and c) above
1266.The following are true about infection prevention
a) Hand washing, disinfection prophylactic antibiotics
b) Hand washing, prophylactic antibiotics, sterilization
c) Hand washing, use of protectives and equipment processing
d) Decontamination, cleaning of equipment and sterilization
e) All the above
1267.A gravida 1 Para 0+1 mother presents with vaginal bleeding at 40WOA. The
following is the best
a) No digital V/E, ultrasound and wait for spontaneous labour
b) No vaginal exam, ultrasound, examination under anaesthesia
c) The cause may be a heavy show
d) No digital exam, Hb estimation, Blood grouping and cross matching, prepare for
C/S
e) a) and c) above
1268.A prime gravid mother is in labour, the partograph reaches the action line. The
appropriate action is
a) The mother has obstructed labour, deliver by C/S immediately
b) The mother has prolonged labour, rehydrate and augment with oxytocin 2.5IU in
5% dextrose
c) The mother has prolonged labour, rehydrate and deliver by Emergency C/S
immediately
d) Something is wrong. Reassess the partograph, labour and decide on the cause
e) The mother and the baby are distressed, turn her on the left side, give IV fluids
and oxygen and inform consultant
1269.The best time to listen to the foetal heart in labour is
a) Before a contraction
b) During a contraction
c) After a contraction
d) b) and c) above
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e) None of the above
1270.Symptoms of pregnancy
a) Quickening is experienced at about 18 WOA in a PG
b) Uterus may be palpable abdominally by 12 WOA
c) Lightening is the reduction in fundal height which occurs between 38-40 WOA
d) Urine HCG is positive as early as 10 days after fertilization
e) Bimanual palpation has no role in diagnosis
1271.PPH
a) Active mgt of 3rd stage of labour may prevent it
b) Ruptured uterus is not a cause
c) Sheehan’s syndrome is a consequence
d) Is an indirect cause of maternal mortality
e) Endometritis is a cause of primary PPH
1272.Refocused ANC
a) There is reduced mother to health worker contact time
b) Is cheaper for the mother
c) Fewer attendances means heavier clinic days
d) There is less satisfaction to the mother since they are seen less often
e) All the above
1273.Elective C/S
a) Is done to all TRR mothers
b) Is mandatory in a mother with previous C/S
c) Can help in MTCT prevention
d) Should be done on mothers request
e) Pregnancy dating is not important
1274.Induction of labour
a) Is indicated in hypertensive disease
b) A favourable cervix is long, hard and closed
c) Oxytocin is given as a bolus
d) Is contraindicated in cord prolapse
e) Misoprostol is licensed for this purpose in Uganda
1275.A 17 year old presents with offensive PV discharge. What is the most likely
diagnosis
a) Incomplete septic abortion
b) Puerperal sepsis
c) Vaginosis
d) Ectopic pregnancy
e) All the above
1276.ANC
a) Male partner involvement is encouraged
b) IPT is given monthly in a PG
c) IPT is given monthly in HIV
d) Routine investigations include urinalysis, HIV screening, Hb, and Full Blood Count
e) All the above
1277.Complications of C/S
a) Obstetric fistulae
b) Obstetric palsy
c) If bladder damaged, repair it after 3 months
d) Rupture of uterus may occur in subsequent pregnancies
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e) All the above
1278.About pregnancy induced hypertension
a) Eclampsia may occur after delivery
b) Eclampsia may follow criminal abortion
c) Severe pre eclampsia may be complicated oliguria
d) Spinal anaesthesia is contraindicated
e) Pulmonary oedema is a known complication
1279.A gravida 3 Para 2+0 presents to labour ward with PV bleeding at term, associated
with colicky abdominal pain. What is the most likely possibility
a) Labour pains with heavy show
b) Abruptio placenta
c) Ruptured uterus
d) Ectopic pregnancy
e) Cancer of the cervix
1280.The following are common physiological changes during pregnancy.
a) Uterus at term weighing 1.1 kg.
b) Protein metabolism increased around 1000g.
c) Fat storage is greater during mid pregnancy.
d) Physiological anaemia in pregnancy.
e) Abnormalities in concentration, attention and memory
1281.Objective of performing an episiotomy includes.
a) To prolong 2nd stage of labour.
b) Preserve integrity of pelvic floor.
c) Forestall uterine prolapse.
d) Save baby’s brain from injury
e) It is a routine in every prime gravida.
1282.Features of a medio-lateral episiotomy include.
a) Extensions are common.
b) Dyspareunia may be occasional.
c) Postoperative pain common.
d) More difficult to repair.
e) Blood loss is less compared to midline episiotomy.
1283.Risk factors for perineal extension following episiotomy:
a) 2
nd stage arrest.
b) Vacuum extraction.
c) Small baby.
d) Persistent occiput posterior.
e) Nulliparity.
1284.Regarding episiotomy repair.
a) Good lighting is not important.
b) Adequate analgesia prior to beginning of repair is not important.
c) Meticulous haemostasis is needed
d) Anatomical re-approximation is needed.
e) Use nylon 2/0 for vaginal mucosa.
1285.Pregnancy and its physiology
a) Stretching of the muscle cell in the uterus is due to placental lactogen
b) In the uterus, there is an increase in fibrous tissue mainly in the internal layer
c) The uterus capacity is increased from 10mls to 2L
d) At 14 weeks the uterus maintains the pear shape
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e) All the above
1286.About preterm labour/delivery
a) Despite co existing factors, adolescence remains a high risk factor for preterm
labour
b) Single women are at higher risk
c) Placenta previa is the commonest foetal factor inducing premature delivery
d) Cyclooxygenase 2 has no role in the pathogenesis
e) None of the above
1287.Preterm labour management
a) Betamimetic drugs are indicated in patients with hyperthyroidism
b) Cyclooxygenase is inhibited by indomethacin
c) Hydration and bed rest is highly effective in uterine activity inhibition
d) The only benefit provided by steroids in premature babies is acceleration of
foetal lung maturity
e) Pre delivery administration of steroids can be replaced by post natal
administration of surfactant
1288.The following are among potentially effective interventions to reduce the incidence
of preterm deliveries
a) Smoking cessation
b) Adequate diagnosis and management of asymptomatic bacteraemia
c) Treatment of bacteria Vaginosis
d) None of the above
1289.About placenta previa
a) IVF has no role in the aetiology
b) Vaginal examination should always be done under general anaesthesia
c) Kleihauer–Betke test helps in differentiating from circumvallate placenta
d) Always prevent the engagement of the presenting part
e) None of the above
1290.Placenta Previa management
a) Tocolytics are indicated in preterm management
b) Vaginal delivery should always be attempted if the mother is not severely affected
c) PPH should be anticipated
d) When mild bleeding at term, mother stable, labour should be awaited
e) All the above
1291.Abruptio placenta
a) DIC is the commonest complication
b) Amniotic fluid embolism should not occur
c) Couvelaire uterus is always an indication for hysterectomy
d) Trauma is the commonest cause in Uganda
e) Amniotomy is only done when induction is indicated
1292.About pre-eclampsia
a) Proteinuria is considered when a random sample show 30mg/ml
b) Urine dipstick is indicated twice per week during conservative management
c) Severe pre-eclampsia is a contraindication for labour induction
d) Doppler velocimetry can be done for foetal wellbeing assessment
e) None of the above
1293.Which of the following is the best choice for severe pre eclampsia
a) Short acting nifedipine
b) Labetalol injection
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c) Apresolin injection
d) Nitro-glycerine injection
e) Sodium nitropruside
1294.Which of the following are false?
a) POP can be corrected with obstetric forceps.
b) Vacuum extraction has no role in ROP position.
c) POP is frequently related to labour dystocias.
d) Episiotomy should be offered to all mothers with ROA position.
e) LOP position can be corrected spontaneously.
1295.Immediate complications for caesarean section include:
a) Severe haemorrhage.
b) Injury to neighbouring organs.
c) Infections.
d) Haemorrhage.
e) Intestinal obstruction
1296.Recommendations for elective caesarean section include
a) Primegravida with breech presentation at 30 wks in labour.
b) Successful repaired VVF.
c) Severe pre-eclampsia Bishop’s score below 6.
d) One previous caesarean section history.
e) Multi foetal pregnancy (triplet).
1297.The following are associated with breech presentation.
a) Polyhydramnios.
b) Oligohydramnios.
c) Multiple pregnancy
d) Contracted pelvis.
e) Low socio-economic status.
1298.About breech presentation.
a) Most are delivered by caesarean section.
b) First stage of labour is quicker than cephalic presentation.
c) Cord prolapse is not a risk.
d) Forceps cannot be used for delivery.
e) Can be managed by a TBAS.
1299.Obstructed labour.
a) Occurs only in prime gravida.
b) Cystic hygroma is a cause.
c) Wilm’s tumour is not a cause.
d) Cannot occur when using partograph.
e) All of the above are false.
1300.Postpartum haemorrhage.
a) Prostaglandins are helpful in its managements.
b) May occur in subsequent pregnancies.
c) Oxytocic drugs have no role in management.
d) Very common in primegravidas.
e) Is anticipated in mothers with APH.
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