1301.PPH.
a) Misoprostol (Cytotec) can be used to treat it.
b) Hysterectomy is one of the treatment modality in uncontrolled haemorrhage.
c) Can occur before labour.
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d) Foetal demise is a risk factor.
e) Uterine atony is a common cause.
1302.The following are common complications of eclampsia.
a) Abruptio placenta.
b) Foetal distress.
c) Meningitis.
d) Cardiovascular accident.
e) Increased rate of c/section deliveries.
1303.Classic signs and symptoms of complete uterine rupture include:
a) Sudden onset of tearing abdominal pain.
b) Cessation of uterine contractions.
c) Absence of foetal heart.
d) Recession of the presenting part
e) All of the above.
1304.The following are common physiological changes during pregnancy.
a) Uterus at term weighing 1.1 kg.
b) Proteins metabolism increased around 1000g.
c) Fat storage is greater during mid pregnancy.
d) Physiological anaemia in pregnancy.
e) Abnormalities in concentration, attention and memory.
1305.Cardiovascular changes during pregnancy include:
a) Increased circulating volume up to 60 % over the pre conception values.
b) Increased circulating volume up to 45-50% over the pre conception values.
c) Electrical axis of the heart left deviated.
d) Increased heart silhouette in x-rays.
e) Systolic murmur can be present up to 90 % of all pregnant woman
1306.Changes in coagulating system during pregnancy include:
a) Reduction in platelets count.
b) Increased in fibrin-fibrinogen circulating complexes.
c) Increased platelets aggregation.
d) Increased circulating levels of all coagulating factors including XI and XIII.
1307.Malaria in pregnancy.
a) Plasmodium vivax causes cerebral malaria.
b) Plasmodium malariae causes relapses.
c) Chondroitin sulphate A receptors protects primegravidas against severe malaria.
d) Primegravidas are most prone to hyperparasitaemia than grand multiparous.
e) All pregnant women require 3 doses of intermittent presumptive treatment.
1308.Malaria in pregnancy causes anaemia by the following mechanisms.
a) Dyserythropoiesis
b) Phagocytosis.
c) Haemolysis of RBC.
d) Bone marrow suppression.
e) Erythropoiesis.
1309.Objective of performing an episiotomy include:
a) To prolong 2nd stage of labour.
b) Preserve integrity of pelvic floor.
c) Forestall uterine prolapse.
d) Save baby’s brain from injury
e) It is a routine in every primegravida.
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1310.Features of a medio-lateral episiotomy include:
a) Extensions are common.
b) Dyspareunia may be occasional.
c) Postoperative pain common.
d) More difficult to repair.
e) Blood loss is less compared to midline episiotomy.
1311.Risk factors for perineal extension following episiotomy:
a) 2
nd stage arrest.
b) Vacuum extraction.
c) Small baby.
d) Persistent occiput posterior.
e) Nulliparity.
1312.Regarding episiotomy repair.
a) Good lighting is not important.
b) Adequate analgesia prior to beginning of repair is not important.
c) Meticulous haemostasis is needed
d) Anatomical re-approximation is needed.
e) Use nylon 2/0 for vaginal mucosa.
1313.Risk factors for perinatal death include:
a) Premature rupture of membranes.
b) Foetal hypoxia of unknown cause.
c) Chorioamnionitis.
d) Abruptio placenta.
e) Vasa previa.
1314.Risk factors for disseminated intravascular coagulation include:
a) Abruptio placenta.
b) Pre-eclampsia/eclampsia.
c) Amniotic fluid embolism.
d) Use of hypertonic saline to induce labour.
e) None of the above.
1315.About foetal lie.
a) Relate foetal long axis to maternal long axis.
b) Relate foetal long axis to uterine long axis.
c) Can be established with ultrasound scan.
d) Cannot be determined from plain abdominal x-rays.
e) Oblique lie is abnormal.
1316.Which of the following is are true about foetal aptitude.
a) Describes the foetal part in the funds.
b) Describes the relationship between foetal parts.
c) Delivered is easy when aptitude is flexion
d) Delivery is easy when aptitude is extension.
e) Is not affected by the foetal maturity.
1317.About a denominator.
a) An arbitrary selected point/part of the foetus.
b) In vertex presentation denominator is occiput.
c) In breech presentation the denominator is de anus.
d) In shoulder presentation the denominator in the clavicle
e) In brow presentation it is the nose.
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1318.The following are true about position.
a) Relates the denominator to the lower uterine segment.
b) Relates the denominator to the maternal pelvic brim.
c) ROA is a normal position.
d) LOA is a normal position.
e) ROP is an abnormal position.
1319.Which of the following are false?
a) POP can be corrected with obstetric forceps.
b) Vacuum extraction has no role in ROP position.
c) All occiput posterior positions are managed with emergency Caesarean section.
d) Episiotomy should be offered to all mothers with ROA position.
e) LOP position can be corrected spontaneously.
1320.Immediate complications for Caesarean section include:
a) Severe haemorrhage.
b) Injury to neighbouring organs.
c) Infections.
d) Reaction haemorrhage.
e) Intestinal obstruction
1321.Recommendations for elective Caesarean section include
a) Primegravida with breech presentation at 30 wks.
b) Successful repaired VVF.
c) Severe pre- eclampsia.
d) One previous Caesarean section history.
e) Multiple pregnancy.
1322.About frank breech.
a) It has the greatest risk for cord prolapse.
b) The hips are extended.
c) The knees are extended.
d) The knees are flexes.
e) The hips are flexes
1323.In complete breech.
a) The hips are flexes
b) The hips are extended.
c) The knees are flexes.
d) The needs are extended.
e) It’s the commonest type at term.
1324.The following are associated with breech presentation.
a) Polyhydramnios.
b) Oligohydramnios.
c) Multiple pregnancy.
d) Contracted pelvis.
e) Low socio-economic status.
1325.About breech presentation.
a) Most are delivered by Caesarean section.
b) First stage of labour is quicker than cephalic presentation.
c) Cord prolapse is not a risk.
d) Forceps cannot be used for deliveries.
e) Can be managed by a TBS.
1326.In spontaneous breech delivery.
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a) The arms are delivered with Loveset manoeuvre.
b) The after coming head is delivered by Piper’s forceps.
c) The foetus is pulled with a pelvic traction.
d) The birth attendant does not assist at any stage.
e) Is not a common practice now
1327.Complications of the obstructed labour
a) Neonatal sepsis.
b) Foot drop.
c) Rectovaginal fistula.
d) PPH.
e) Foetal demise.
1328.Postpartum haemorrhages.
a) Prostaglandins helpful in its managements.
b) May occur in subsequent pregnancies.
c) Oxytocic drugs have no role in management.
d) Very common in primegravidas.
e) Is anticipated in mothers with APH.
1329.PPH.
a) Misoprostol (Cytotec) can be used to treat.
b) Hysterectomy is one of the mode of delivery is uncontrolled haemorrhage.
c) Can occur before labour.
d) Foetal demise is a risk factor.
e) Uterine atony is a common cause.
1330.The following are common complications of eclampsia.
a) Abruptio placenta.
b) DIC.
c) Meningitis.
d) Cardiovascular accident.
e) Cerebral haemorrhages.
1331.Classic sign and symptoms of complete uterine rupture include:
a) Sudden onset of tearing abdominal pain.
b) Cessation of uterine contractions.
c) Absent of foetal heart.
d) Recession of the presenting part
e) All of the above.
1332.Rupture uterus surgical options.
a) Total abdominal hysterectomy.
b) Subtotal hysterectomy.
c) Repair of rupture alone.
d) Repair rupture and tubal ligation.
e) Laparoscope.
1333.Obstructed labour mode of delivery.
a) Should be always c/section.
b) Vacuum extraction may be done.
c) Forceps delivery is contraindicated.
d) Symphysiotomy can be done.
e) Destructive operation can be done.
1334.Prevention of obstructed labour.
a) Use of partograph in labour monitoring.
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b) Good nutrition in childhood.
c) Development of appropriate and timely referrals.
d) Treatment of malaria in pregnancy.
e) Use of traditional birth attendant.
1335.About Ectopic pregnancy.
a) Laparoscopy has not role in diagnosis.
b) Arias- Stella phenomenon reaction rules out possibility of Ectopic.
c) Methotrexate use is recommended in ruptured tubal Ectopic.
d) Does not occur in primegravidas.
e) May co-exist with a PID.
1336.Predisposing factors to Ectopic pregnancy include:
a) Fertilization of an unextruded ovum.
b) Chronic salpingitis and recurrent PID.
c) Congenital tubal anomalies like diverticulosis, atresia and accessory ostia.
d) Exogenous hormone use.
e) Previous tubal or pelvic surgeries.
1337.A family planning provider should be sure that a FP client is not pregnant if:
a) Client has not sexual intercourse since the last normal menses.
b) Correctly and consistently using a reliable method of contraception.
c) Client is within the first 7 days after normal menses.
d) Is within 4 weeks postpartum for non-lactating women
e) Is fully breast feeding
1338.Oral contraceptives.
a) Can predispose to venous thromboembolism.
b) Act primarily by inhibiting ovulation.
c) May cause amenorrhea.
d) Can predispose to ischemic heart disease.
e) Can be used as emergency contraception.
1339.The following are examples of third generation progesterones.
a) Misoprostol.
b) Gestodene.
c) Desogestrol.
d) Norgestimate.
e) Mestranol.
1340.Depo-Provera.
a) Contains the progesterone laevonorgestrel.
b) Is a combine injectable contraceptive.
c) Contains medroxyprogesterone acetate.
d) Can cause breakthrough bleeding.
e) Return to fertility is immediate after terminating its use.
1341.Norplant.
a) Is a progesterone-only contraceptive.
b) Contain only 5 sub dermal implants.
c) Is effective up to 6 years.
d) Return to fertility is immediate after its removal.
e) Can predispose to ischaemic heart disease.
1342.The female condom.
a) Can be reused.
b) Is made of latex.
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c) Is stronger than the male condom.
d) Can be stored at variable temperature.
e) Can be worn up to 10 hours before sexual intercourse.
1343.The following can lead to male infertility.
a) Excessive smoking.
b) Morbid obesity.
c) Orchidopexy.
d) Vasectomy.
e) Oligospermia.
1344.Norplant II.
a) Contains progesterone only.
b) Is effective for up to 5 years.
c) Return to fertility after its removal is immediate.
d) Is inserted subcutaneously under the medial aspect of the arm.
e) Can predispose to thromboembolism.
1345.The following are common complications of eclampsia.
a) Placenta previa.
b) Abruptio placenta
c) Acute pulmonary oedema.
d) Disseminated intravascular coagulation.
e) Acute renal failure.
1346.The following are true about puerperal infection.
a) It is the infection of the genital tract of a woman while pregnant or after delivery.
b) The commonest site of infection is episiotomy wound.
c) Caesarean section has the greatest risk for infection.
d) Endometritis is the commonest infection.
e) None of the above.
1347.Among the commonest anaerobes causative organism for puerperal infection we
can find the following except?
a) Klebsiella.
b) Peptococcus species.
c) Peptostreptococcus
d) Bacteroides fragilis.
e) Proteus mirabilis.
1348.Which of the following are not among the risk factor for puerperal infection?
a) Poor antiseptic technique.
b) Prolonged labour/ruptured membranes.
c) External cephalic version.
d) Forceps delivery.
e) Bacterial vaginosis.
1349.A patient delivered at Mbarara Regional Referral Hospital develops a moderate
endometritis. Which of the following are true in the patient management?
a) Broad spectrum antibiotic combination and swab for culture and sensitivity in the
3
rd day of treatment.
b) Swabs from the lochia, cervical canal, endometrial cavity and wait for the results
to establish adequate antimicrobial treatment.
c) As we know the commonest causative micro-organism and it sensitivity we advice
to start with x-pen, gentamicin.
d) Broad spectrum antibiotic should be started immediately and readjusted when the
result is available.
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e) None of the entire above is true.
1350.A 25 year old patient at 32 weeks of amenorrhea was brought to maternity ward of
MRRH. These are the clinical findings on the physical examination. Pale xxx,
dehydrated, RP: 120/min; BP 90/60 mmHg; delay in the capillary refilling time;
bleeding by mouth. Abd: Fundal height 36 cm, tenderness, and uterus hard, no
FHeart heard. Vaginally: scanty blood coming through the canal, reddish area around
the ECO was noticed. Which among the following is the most likely diagnosis?
a) Placental abruption.
b) Placenta previa type IV.
c) Cervical carcinoma.
d) Severe placental abruption with IUFD and CID.
e) Vasa previa with IUFD.
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