1351.In relation with the above presented patient: Which of the following is true about
her management?
a) Establishing two peripheral lines, blood for FBC, clotting profile, blood transfusion
and emergency c/section.
b) Immediate induction of labour using a Foley catheter.
c) General measures for all APH, AROM, correction of the DIC and emergency
C/section.
d) General measures for all APH, AROM, correction of the DIC and induction of
labour.
e) General measures for all APH, AROM, correction of the shock and DIC and
induction of labour.
1352.Physiopathology of pre-eclampsia.
a) Prostacyclin level higher than thromboxane A2 .
b) Placental growth factor level is elevated.
c) Endothelin production elevated.
d) Trophoblastic invasion of the spiral arteries is complete.
e) None of the above.
1353.MgSO4.
a) Act by blocking the release of acetylcholine at the neuro-muscular plaque.
b) Is a natural calcium antagonist.
c) Is given 10 g 50% Iv as initial dose.
d) Has no advantage over phenytoin in fits prevention.
e) Produce oligo-anuria.
1354.Hydralazine’s use in pre-eclampsia.
a) Is a central vasodilator.
b) Is given as IV bolus initially: 10mg slowly followed by 5mg every 30 min.
c) Can be use as infusion.
d) Is given 5mg IV hourly.
e) The last dose should be given when diastolic BP is 90 mmHg.
1355.A comprehensive post abortal care includes.
a) Post abortal counselling.
b) Treatment of the complications.
c) Family planning services.
d) RCT.
e) All of the above.
1356.Cardiovascular changes during pregnancy include:
a) Increased circulating volume up to 60 % over the pre conception values.
b) Increased circulating volume up to 45-50% over the pre conception values.
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c) Electrical axis of the heart is deviated to the left.
d) Increased heart silhouette on x-rays.
e) Systolic murmur can be present up to 90 % of all pregnant woman
1357.Changes in coagulating system during pregnancy include:
a) Reduction in platelets count.
b) Increased in fibrin-fibrinogen circulating complexes.
c) Increased platelets aggregation.
d) Increased circulating levels of all coagulating factors including XI and XIII.
e) None of the above
1358.Malaria in pregnancy causes anaemia by the following mechanisms.
a) Dyserythropoiesis
b) Phagocytosis.
c) Haemolysis of RBC.
d) Bone marrow suppression.
e) Erythropoiesis.
1359.Objective of performing an episiotomy include.
a) To prolong 2nd stage of labour.
b) Preserve integrity of pelvic floor.
c) Forestall uterine prolapse.
d) Save baby’s brain from injury
e) It is a routine in every primegravida.
1360.Features of a medio-lateral episiotomy include.
a) Extensions are common.
b) Dyspareunia may be occasional.
c) Postoperative pain common.
d) More difficult to repair.
e) Blood loss is less compared to midline episiotomy.
1361.Regarding episiotomy repair.
a) Good lighting is not important.
b) Adequate analgesia prior to beginning of repair is not important.
c) Meticulous haemostasis is needed
d) Anatomical re-approximation is needed.
e) Use nylon 2/0 for vaginal mucosa.
1362.Risk factors for perinatal death include:
a) Premature rupture of membranes.
b) Foetal hypoxia of unknown cause.
c) Chorioamnionitis.
d) Abruptio placenta.
e) Vasa previa.
1363.Risk factors for disseminated intravascular coagulation include:
a) Abruptio placenta.
b) Pre-eclampsia/eclampsia.
c) Amniotic fluid embolism.
d) Use of hypertonic saline to induce labour.
e) None of the above.
1364.Multigravidas are at increased risk of:
a) Postpartum haemorrhage.
b) Anaemia in pregnancy.
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c) Ruptured uterus.
d) Severe malaria in pregnancy.
e) Maternal depletion syndrome.
1365.Multiple pregnancy.
a) Triplets are better delivered by Caesarean section.
b) Induction of the labour is contraindicated.
c) There is high infant mortality and morbidity.
d) Cord prolapse may happen.
e) Risk factor for PPH.
1366.About a denominator.
a) An arbitrary selected point/part of the foetus.
b) In vertex presentation denominator is occiput.
c) In breech presentation the denominator is the anus.
d) In shoulder presentation the denominator in the clavicle
e) In brow presentation it is the nose.
1367.The following are true about position.
a) Relates the denominator to the lower uterine segment.
b) Relates the denominator to the maternal pelvic brim.
c) ROA is a normal position.
d) LOA is a normal position.
e) ROP is an abnormal position.
1368.Recommendations for elective Caesarean section include
a) Primegravida with breech presentation at 30 wks.
b) Successfully repaired VVF.
c) Severe pre- eclampsia.
d) History of one previous Caesarean section
e) Multiple pregnancy
1369.Caesarean section.
a) Most common mode of delivery in our service.
b) Is always indicated in patients with previous uterine scar.
c) Patients don’t need to be prepared.
d) Is done in all cases of foetal distress.
e) Mother can start oral feeding after 6-8 hours.
1370.The following are associated with breech presentation.
a) Polyhydramnios.
b) Oligohydramnios.
c) Multiple pregnancy
d) Contracted pelvis.
e) Low socio-economic status.
1371.About breech presentation.
a) Most are delivered by Caesarean section.
b) First stage of labour is quicker than cephalic presentation.
c) Cord prolapse is not a risk.
d) Forceps cannot be used for deliveries.
e) Can be managed by a TBA
1372.In spontaneous breech delivery.
a) The arms are delivered with Loveset manoeuvre.
b) The after coming head is delivered by Piper’s forceps.
c) The foetus is pulled with a pelvic traction.
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d) The birth attendant does not assist at any stage.
e) Is not a common practice now
1373.Obstructed labour.
a) Occur only in primegravida
b) Cystic hygroma is a cause
c) Wilm’s tumour is not a cause
d) Cannot occur when using partograph.
e) All of the above are false.
1374.Complications of the obstructed.
a) Neonatal sepsis.
b) Foot drop.
c) Rectovaginal fistula.
d) PPH.
e) Foetal demise.
1375.Postpartum haemorrhage
a) Prostaglandins helpful in its management
b) May occur in subsequent pregnancies.
c) Oxytocic drugs have no role in management.
d) Very common in primegravidas.
e) Is anticipated in mothers with APH.
1376.PPH.
a) Misoprostol (Cytotec) can be used to treat.
b) Hysterectomy is one of the modes of treatment
c) Can occur before labour.
d) Foetal demise is a risk factor.
e) Uterine atony is a common cause.
1377.The following are common complications of eclampsia.
a) Abruptio placenta.
b) DIC.
c) Meningitis.
d) Cardiovascular accident.
e) Cerebral haemorrhages.
1378.Classic sign and symptoms of complete uterine rupture include:
a) Sudden onset of tearing abdominal pain.
b) Cessation of uterine contractions.
c) Absence of foetal heart.
d) Recession of the presenting part
e) All of the above.
1379.Rupture uterus: surgical options.
a) Total abdominal hysterectomy.
b) Subtotal hysterectomy.
c) Repair of rupture alone.
d) Repair rupture and tubal ligation.
e) Laparoscope.
1380.Obstructed labour: mode of delivery.
a) Should be always c/section.
b) Vacuum extraction may be done.
c) Forceps delivery is contraindicated.
d) Symphysiotomy can be done.
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e) Destructive operation can be done.
1381.Prevention of obstructed labour.
a) Use of partograph in labour monitoring.
b) Good nutrition in childhood.
c) Development of appropriate and timely referrals.
d) Treatment of malaria in pregnancy.
e) Use of traditional birth attendant.
1382.About Ectopic pregnancy.
a) Laparoscopy has no role in diagnosis.
b) Arias- Stella phenomenon reaction rules out possibility of Ectopic.
c) Methotrexate use is recommended in ruptured tubal Ectopic.
d) Does not occur in primegravidas.
e) May co-exist with a PID.
1383.Predisposing factors to Ectopic pregnancy include:
a) Fertilization of an unextruded ovum.
b) Chronic salpingitis and recurrent PID.
c) Congenital tubal anomalies like diverticulosis, atresia and accessory ostia.
d) Exogenous hormone use.
e) Previous tubal or pelvic surgeries.
1384.Oral contraceptives.
a) Can predispose to venous thromboembolism.
b) Act primarily by inhibiting ovulation.
c) May cause amenorrhea.
d) Can predispose to ischemic heart disease.
e) Can be used as emergency contraception.
1385.Depo-Provera.
a) Contains the progesterone laevonorgestrel.
b) Is a combine injectable contraceptive.
c) Contains medroxyprogesterone acetate.
d) Can cause breakthrough bleeding.
e) Return to fertility is immediate after terminating its use.
1386.Norplant.
a) Is a progesterone-only contraceptive.
b) Contain only 5 sub dermal implants.
c) Is effective up to 6 years.
d) Return to fertility is immediate after its removal.
e) Can predispose to ischaemic heart disease
1387.The female condom.
a) Can be reused.
b) Is made of latex.
c) Is stronger than the male condom.
d) Can be stored at variable temperature.
e) Can be worn up to 8 hours before sexual intercourse.
1388.The following can lead to male infertility.
a) Excessive smoking.
b) Morbid obesity.
c) Orchidopexy.
d) Vasectomy.
e) Oligospermia.
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1389.Implanon.
a) Contains progesterone only.
b) Is effective for up to 5 years.
c) Is effective up to 3 years
d) Return to fertility after its removal is immediate.
e) Is inserted subcutaneously under the medial aspect of the arm.
1390.The following are common complications of eclampsia.
a) Placenta previa.
b) Abruptio placenta
c) Acute pulmonary oedema.
d) Disseminated intravascular coagulation.
e) Acute renal failure.
1391.An HIV +ve mother delivers a healthy baby. PCR confirms that this baby is HIV
-ve at birth. What will you do to prevent MTCT?
a) Breast feeding for only three months will protect the baby
b) Since the baby is negative, Nevirapine is not necessary
c) Replacement feeding with cow milk is the ideal
d) Wet Nursing is a recognised option
e) Condom use has no role in protecting this baby
1392.The following statements are true about PMTCT
a) The goal is to reduce MTCT by 25%
b) The seroprevalence of HIV among pregnant women in Uganda is 13%
c) PMTCT interventions reduce transmission of HIV to infants by 50%
d) Breast feeding alone contributes 35% of MTCT
e) Family planning is important
1393.A G2P1+0 HIV positive mother comes to clinic. Which of the following will you
consider
a) Initiation of HAART even without medical eligibility
b) CD4 count will not influence the decision to start ART
c) 3TC, D4T, EFV is the combination of Choice
d) 3TC, D4T, NVP is the combination of Choice
e) Triomune is never given
1394.Modified obstetric practices in PMTCT include the following
a) Vaginal cleansing with clean water
b) Administration of 2mg/kg of Nevirapine tablets to a baby after 72hrs of delivery
c) An episiotomy may be performed when necessary
d) Delivery must be conducted in hospital
e) Elective C/S
1395.About waste management
a) Hospital, Blood banks and domiciliary make the largest source of Health care
waste
b) Yellow bin is for placenta and anatomical wastes
c) Sharps constitute more than 1% of health care waste
d) a) and b) are correct
e) b) and c) are correct
1396.During ANC, the following are important and improve outcome of pregnancy and
labour
a) Routine weighing at every visit
b) Routine pelvic assessment at 36 WOA
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c) Routine discussion of place of delivery and mode of transport
d) Routine Hb estimation at every visit
e) Blood group determination at every visit
1397.The following are true about infection prevention
a) Hand washing, disinfection prophylactic antibiotics
b) Hand washing, prophylactic antibiotics, sterilization
c) Hand washing, use of protectives and equipment processing
d) Decontamination, cleaning of equipment and sterilization
e) None of the above The following are true about puerperal infection.
1398.It is the infection of the genital tract of a woman while pregnant or after delivery.
a) The commonest site of infection is episiotomy wound.
b) Caesarean section has the greatest risk for infection.
c) Endometritis is the commonest infection.
d) None of the above.
e) All the above
1399.Among the commonest anaerobic causative organism for puerperal infection we can
find the following except
a) Klebsiella.
b) Peptococcus species.
c) Peptostreptococcus
d) Bacteroides fragilis.
e) Proteus mirabilis.
1400.Which of the following are not among the risk factor for puerperal infection?
a) Poor antiseptic technique.
b) Prolonged labour/ruptured membranes.
c) External cephalic version.
d) Forceps delivery.
e) Bacterial vaginosis.
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