250.About pre eclampsia.
a) Diagnosis is done if: BP is 140/90 in two occasions 3 hours apart.
b) Low levels of calciuria may be present.
c) Low calcium intake is one of the most probable cause.
d) Is most common in elder and grand multiparous.
251.Ante partum haemorrhage (Placenta previa).
a) All women with APH should be delivered by caesarean section.
b) Induction of labour can be done in class I and II.
c) Speculum examination can be done when the bleeding stop and the mother is
stable.
d) Anticipate PPH.
252.During manual removal of the placenta.
a) Give ergometrine /oxytocin prior to the procedure.
b) Give antibiotics 24 hour after the procedureand continue for 5 to 7 days.
c) Place one hand on the abdomen, press down and while applying traction on the
cord.
d) All of the above.
253.Anaemia in malaria is cause by.
a) Dyserythropoiesis.
b) Erytrophagocytosis.
c) Haemolysis of parasitized and not parasitized red blood cell.
d) Fever.
254.Malaria in pregnancy.
a) Plasmodium vivax causes cerebral malaria.
b) Plasmodium malarie causes relapses.
c) Chondroitin sulphate A receptors Protect PG’s against severe malaria.
d) Prime gravida are more prone to hyperparasitaemia than grand multiparous.
255.The following are risk factor for pre eclampsia.
a) Primegravida.
b) History of genetic disorders.
c) Diabetes mellitus.
d) New husband.
256.About management of severe pre eclampsia.
a) Severe pre eclampsia should be managed as out patient after control of the blood
pressure.
b) Magnesium sulphate should be used in all cases routinely.
c) Methyldopa is the best option to treat the crisis.
d) Aspirin 80 mg daily may help in prevevnting pre eclampsia in patient at high risk.
-243-
257.About eclampsia pathophysiological explanation may be.
a) The presence of amniotic embolization of the brain arteries.
b) Vasoconstriction of the brain arteries with subsequent ischemia, infartions,
oedema and peri vascular Haemorrhages.
c) Because the hypovolaemia in pre eclamptic patient causing cerebral hypoxia.
d) Because the hyper coagulability of the blood causing stroke and partial;
infarctions.
258.About eclampsia.
a) Difenyl hidantoine is the drug of choise.
b) Difenyl hidantoine can be used as secure alternative in the absent of magnesium
sulphate.
c) Delivery is indicated only after complete stabilization of the patient.
d) Vaginal delivery is contraindicated.
259.The following are true about molar pregnancy.
a) Elevated hCG levels more than 40000IU for the β fraction in serum.
b) Pelvic ultrasound assessment is needed.
c) TSH,T3 and T4 assessment.
d) Can be followed by a choriocarcinoma.
260.About gestational trophoblastic tumour .
a) Stage I Resistant: combination therapy or hysterectomy adjunctive therapy, local
resection and local infusion.
b) Stage II and III high risk Initial Tx. Second line combination therapy.
c) Stage III. Tumour extend to lung with known or unknown genital tract
involvement.
d) May appear in 4% of all molar pregnancy.
261.Instrumental delivery.
a) Is used to shortening prolonged first stage of labour.
b) Is contraindicated in multigravida.
c) Maternal pelvis should be adequate.
d) Can be used even in not fully dilated cervix.
262.PPH.
a) Best ensure 2IV access lines 24 gauge size.
b) Surgery is always the best option.
c) Team work is mandatory.
d) Vaginal lacerations are the commonest cause.
263.During resuscitation of the new born.
a) Start by Apgar scoring the baby.
b) Suck the mouth first as the baby has liquor in the mouth and the pharynx.
c) Intravenous line is mandatory as the new born may need Iv antibiotics.
d) All of the above.
264.Abruptio placentae.
a) Can lead to DIC.
b) Can cause Couvelaire uterus.
c) Is associated with malaria.
d) No risk factor for PPH
265.Elective caesarean section.
a) Should only be done in mother’s request.
-244-
b) Is mandatory in a mother with one previous caesarean section.
c) Done for all TTR mothers.
d) Can help in MTCT.
266.Habitual abortions
a) Best defined as 3 or more consecutive spontaneous losses of nonviable foetus.
b) Investigations should be done before another pregnancy occur.
c) Spontaneous abortion due to infections.
d) Incompetent cervix is a common cause.
267.Urge incontinence.
a) Due to detrusor hypersensitivity.
b) Due to detrusor hyper activity.
c) Majority of cause is idiopathic.
d) Amount of urine passed is small.
268.Myomectomy.
a) Is treatment of choice for uterine fibroid in a 60 year old woman
b) Is associated with operation heavy blood loss.
c) Can be done using hysteroscopy.
d) Can be done vaginally.
269.In urinary incontinence.
a) The intra vesicle pressure is higher than intra urethral pressure.
b) The intra urethral pressure is higher than intra vesicle pressure.
c) There is lowered urethral pressure.
d) There is descent of the bladder neck and proximal urethra such that enable
retention of urine.
270.The following are common symptoms of uterine fibroids.
a) Low abdominal mass.
b) Low abdominal pain.
c) Pressure
d) Inter menstrual bleeding.
271.The following can be related with ectopic pregnancy.
a) Previous tubal surgery.
b) Peptic ulcer disease
c) COC pills.
d) Infertility.
272.Vasectomy.
a) Leads to immediate sterility.
b) Cause impotence.
c) Involve ligation of efferentia.
d) Is a female surgical sterilization technique.
273.The following are indication for D & C.
a) Missed abortion.
b) Ca endometrium.
c) Endometritis
d) DUB.
274.Premalignant lesion of the cervix.
a) HPV sub typing allowing identify those women who will develop cervical cancer.
-245-
b) Hysterectomy is indicated as treatment for all premalignant disease in the cervix.
c) Combine oral contraceptive give protection.
d) Male factor is not important in the pathogenesis.
275.Vaginal foaming tablets.
a) Active ingredients is nonoxynolol 2 and ethanol
b) Act by causing endometrial thinning.
c) They prevent sexually transmitted infections.
d) Is the elective method in adolescent.
276.The following are true about VVF
a) Should be repaired at least 2 month after delivery.
b) Surgical repair is the only mode of treatment
c) Amenorrhea is a very common finding
d) The commonest cause in Uganda is surgery.
277.About PID.
a) Generalized abdominal pain.
b) Vaginal discharge
c) Vaginal examination will produce tenderness with cervical motion.
d) Lower abdominal pain.
278.Norplant II.
a) Contain 3 sub dermal implantable rods.
b) Is effective up to 4 years.
c) Contains Etonogestrel as active oestrogen.
d) Can inhibit ovulation.
279.The following are indication for removal cervical cerclage.
a) Rupture of the membranes.
b) Haemorrhages
c) Elevations of blood pressure.
d) Uterine contractions.
280.The following are methods to diagnosis of ovulations.
a) Endometrial biopsy
b) Basal body temperature in the 1st half of the cycle.
c) Observing ovulation by ultrasound.
d) Vaginal cytology.
281.In cervical incompetence.
a) Diagnosis is done usually after abortion occur.
b) It is a habitual mid trimester abortion
c) Rupture of membranes is not a feature.
d) The only option of treatment is inserting a cerclage.
282.Micro invasive cervical of the cervix is
a) Carcinoma in situ.
b) An infiltrative process with distant metastasis.
c) A microscopic infiltrative process without lymphatic invasion or metastasis.
d) A process with distant microscopic metastasis but the basal membrane is intact.
283.The following are true about uterine fibroids.
a) Is associated with cervical carcinoma.
b) Can be associated with endometrial carcinoma
c) Are frequently found in grand multiparous.
-246-
d) Can degenerate easily to a malignancy.
284.About anatomy of the genital tract.
a) Ovary is covered with peritoneum.
b) The ovarian arteries arise from the aorta just bellow the renal artery.
c) The vaginal artery is a branch of external iliac artery.
d) The uterine artery passes medially to reach the uterus at about the level of the
fundus.
285.A patient known to has an ovarian tumour suddenly reports abdominal pain,
vomiting and rapid pulse. The following are likely cause.
a) Rupture of the tumour.
b) Sudden infection of the tumour.
c) Massive haemorrhage in the tumour.
d) All of the above.
286.Endometrial carcinoma.
a) 95 % are not hormonal dependent.
b) The most common type is adenomiosarcoma.
c) Using COC doesn’t offer protection.
d) Is not related with infertility.
287.The following are cause secondary amenorrhea.
a) Polycystic ovarian syndrome.
b) Sheehan’s syndrome
c) Ackerman’s syndrome.
d) Hypooestrogenic state.
288.The following are true about puerperal infection.
a) It is the infection of the genital tract of a woman while pregnant or after delivery.
b) The commonest site of infection is episiotomy wound.
c) Caesarean section has the greatest risk for infection.
d) Endometritis is the commonest infection.
e) None of the above.
289.Among the commonest anaerobes causative organism for puerperal infection we can
find the following except?
a) Klebsiella.
b) Peptoccocus species.
c) Peptoestreptococcus
d) Bacteroides fragilis.
e) Proteus mirabilis.
290.Which of the following are not among the risk factor for puerperal infection?
a) Poor antiseptic technique.
b) Prolonged labour/ruptured membranes.
c) External cephalic version.
d) Forceps delivery.
e) Bacterial vaginosis
291.A patient delivered at Mbarara Regional Referral Hospital develops a moderate
endometritis. Which of the following are true in the patient management?
a) Broad spectrum antibiotic combination and swab for culture and sensitivity in the
3
rd day of treatment.
b) Swabs from the lochia, cervical canal, endometrial cavity and wait for the results
to establish adequate antimicrobial treatment.
-247-
c) As we know the commonest causative micro-organism and it sensitivity we advice
to start with x-pen, gentamycine.
d) Broad spectrum antibiotic should be started immediately and readjusted when the
result is available.
e) None of the entire above is true.
292.A 25 year old patient at 32 weeks of amenorrhea was brought to maternity ward of
MRRH. These are the clinical findings on the physical examination. Pale xxx,
dehydrated, RP: 120/ min; BP 90/60 mmHg; delay in the capillary refilling time;
bleeding by mouth. Abd: Fundal height 36 cm, tenderness, and uterus hard, no
FHeart heard. Vaginally: scanty blood coming through the canal, reddish area around
the ECO was noticed. Which among the following is the most likely diagnosis?
a) Placental abruption.
b) Placenta praevia type IV.
c) Cervical carcinoma.
d) Severe placental abruption with IUFD and CID.
e) Vasa praevia with IUFD.
293.In relation with the above presented patient: Which of the following is true about
her management?
a) Establishing two peripheral lines, blood for FBC, clotting profile, blood transfusion
and emergency c/section.
b) Immediate induction of labour using a Foley catheter.
c) General measures for all APH, AROM, correction of the DIC and emergency
C/section.
d) General measures for all APH, AROM, correction of the DIC and induction of
labour.
e) General measures for all APH, AROM, correction of the shock and DIC and
induction of labour.
294.Physiopathology of pre-eclampsia.
a) Prostacyclin level higher than thromboxane A 2 .
b) Placental growth factor level is elevated.
c) Endothelin production elevated.
d) Trophoblastic invasion of the spiral arteries is complete.
e) None of the above
295.MgSO4.
a) Act by blocking the release of acetylcholine at the neuro-muscular plaque.
b) Is a natural calcium antagonist.
c) Is given 10 g 50% Iv as initial dose.
d) Has no advantage over phenytoin in fit’s prevention.
e) Produce oligo-anuria
296.Hydralazine’s use in pre-eclampsia.
a) Is a central vasodilator.
b) Is given as IV bolus initially: 10mg slowly followed by 5mg every 30 min.
c) Can be use as infusion.
d) Is given 5mg IV hourly.
e) The last dose should be given when diastolic BP is 90 mmHg.
297.A comprehensive post abortal care includes.
a) Post abortal counselling.
b) Treatment of the complications.
c) Family planning services.
d) RCT.
-248-
e) All of the above.
298.Infection control practices include
a) Treat remote infection before elective operation
b) Wash incision site before performing antiseptic skin preparation
c) Prepare skin in a non concentric circle away from incision site
d) Keep pre operative stay as long as possible
e) Pre operative hand and fore arm washing for one minute
299.In infection control, in order to prevent contamination of injection equipment
a) Discard medications that are cracked or leaking
b) If possible, don’t use single dose vials/ampoules
c) Discard any needle that has become contaminated
d) Each injection should be prepared in a clean area designated for it
e) All the above
300.Concerning wound classification
a) Clean wound is made under ideal operating conditions with a break in sterile
technique
b) Clean contaminated wound; there is a minor break in sterile technique
c) Contaminated wound; operations with major break in sterile technique and
incisions encounter acute non purulent inflammation
d) Dirty wound: there are no evident infectious foreign bodies or devitalised tissues
e) All the above
Nhận xét
Đăng nhận xét