351.Which of the following ARVs is contraindicated in pregnancy?
a) 3TC
b) Efavirens
c) DD4.
d) Lamuvudine.
e) None of the above.
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352.Leopold’s manoeuvres include
a) Determination of SFH
b) Pelvic palpation
c) Lateral palpation
d) Auscultation
e) All the above.
353.
354.
355.
356.
357.
358.
359.
360.
361.
362.
363.
364.
365.
366.
367.
368.The following are true, when the fundal height is smaller than the expected for
gestational age.
a) Congenital anomalies can be present.
b) Abnormal lie is a differential.
c) Menstrual error is the commonest cause.
d) Small for date.
e) Pregnancy associated with uterine fibroid.
369.All the following are increase in multiple gestation.
a) Blood loss at delivery.
b) The evidence of congenital anomalies.
c) The evidence of cephalopelvic disproportion.
d) The incidence of placental abruption.
e) The incidence of malpresentation.
370.Dizygotic twinning.
a) Is influenced by hereditary and parity.
b) Maternal age has no influence
c) Use of clomifen reduces the incidence
d) Results from fertilization of one ovum
e) Always result in twins of same sex.
371.About labour.
a) Is divided into two stages.
b) Latent phase is considered since the uterine contractions are started until the
moment the cervix reaches a dilatation of 5 cm.
c) Active phase is considered from 4 cm to 10 cm.
d) Second stage commencement is at 9 cm.
e) Maximum slope is part of the second stage.
372.The following plasmodium species cause a relapse of malaria
a) P. falciparum
b) P. ovale
c) P. malaria
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d) P. vivax
e) P. lugninate
373.Severe malaria in pregnancy
a) Placental site specific antibodies prevent P. falciparum sequestration in the
placenta in primegravidae.
b) Immunosuppresion, effected through high levels of cortisol in pregnancy, explains
the increase in susceptibility to falciparum malaria in pregnancy.
c) Most immune pregnant women remain asymptomatic even in the presence of
heavy parasitaemia.
d) Red cell sequestration starts in the place uta, in the sixth month of pregnancy.
e) The relation between malaria and impaired foetal growth is mediated through
anaemia and placental parasitation.
374.The following treatment regimens are currently recommended by MOH as for
treatment of simple malaria in pregnancy
a) Oral quinine
b) Oral Chloroquine and Fansidar
c) Coartem
d) Artemether and Lumefantrine
e) Parenteral chloroquine.
375.The following pathological lesions are caused by severe falciparum malaria
a) Abundance of malarial pigment in the reticuloendothelial system.
b) Oedematosis brain with broad, flatte red gyri.
c) Presence of haemoglobin in the renal tubules.
d) Kupffer cells are increased in size and number.
e) Pericardial and endocardial petequias
376.Classical c/section is:
a) Vertical incision done in the upper uterine segment.
b) Vertical incision made in the lower uterine segment.
c) Vertical incision extended from the upper to the lower uterine segment.
d) Transverse incision made in the lower uterine segment.
e) None of the above.
377.Combined oral contraceptives
a) Suppress ovulation by diminishing the frequency of GnRH pulses and halting the
luteininsing hormone surge.
b) Make the cervical mucus thick, scanty and less viscous.
c) When administered correctly and constantly they confer a greater than 99%
method effectiveness in preventing pregnancy.
d) Alter tubal transport in favour of fertilization.
e) Are indicated for the teartment of anovulatory DUB.
378.The NUVA ring
a) Is an intrauterine ring.
b) Contains the progesterone, ketodesogestrel.
c) Is inserted after every 4 weeks.
d) Contains ethinyl estradiol.
e) Main side effect is breakthrough bleeding.
379.The following are intrauterine contraceptive devices
a) Copper T300A
b) Mirena.
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c) Progestasert.
d) NUVA ring.
e) Organon.
380.The following are contraindications for insertion of CU T380A.
a) Acute pelvic infection.
b) Dysfunctional uterine bleeding.
c) Suspected pregnancy.
d) Prolapsed uterus.
e) Severe dysmenorrhea
381.Concerning implantable contraceptives
a) Norplant is a two-rod haexonorgestrel system
b) Implanon is a single-rod implant that contains etonorgestrel acetate as the active
hormone.
c) Norplant II is a laevonorgestrel containing contraceptive, which is effective for up
to 5 years.
d) Acute liver disease is an absolute contraindication to Norplant use.
e) None of above is true.
382.The following are true of endometriosis
a) It cannot occur in postmenopausal women as their endometrium is atrophic.
b) It occurs in the reproductive age because of the presence of gonadotrophins.
c) It can cause deep and superficial Dyspareunia.
d) All the above.
e) None of the above.
383.About endometriosis.
a) GnRH effective 100% in cure patient.
b) COC are also used and effective.
c) Surgery has important role.
d) Frequency is reduced with pregnancies.
e) Only present among reproductive age women.
384.The most common site of endometriosis is
a) The pouch of Douglas.
b) The ovary
c) The posterior surface of the uterus
d) The broad ligament
e) The pelvic peritoneum
385.The most frequent symptom of endometriosis
a) Infertility
b) Pain
c) Backache
d) Dyspareunia
e) All the above
386.About pelvic inflammatory disease.
a) Is a polymicrobial infection.
b) Chlamydia causes Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome.
c) N. Gonorrhoea is the commonest causative agent of pelvic abscesses.
d) B Fragilis is commonly involved.
e) CA-125 commonly elevated.
387.About sub-clinical PID.
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a) Defined as the presence of neutrophils and plasma cells in the endometrial tissue.
b) Commonly asymptomatic.
c) Bacterial vaginosis is a risk factor.
d) Plasma cell Endometritis is highly sensitive in diagnosing PID.
e) Chlamydia and N Gonorrhoea are commonly associated
388.The following are sign of malignancy in ovarian masses.
a) Solid masses are present.
b) Giant cyst.
c) Tumour present in both age extremes.
d) Positive tumours marker.
e) Thin septate.
389.Second look surgery.
a) Always done by laparotomy.
b) Only done for patients treated by radiotherapy.
c) It is done for remnant tumour removal.
d) Used in cervical carcinoma follow up.
e) None of the above.
390.A 25 years old woman is operated upon because of bilateral ovarian tumours. The
tumours do not obviously look malignant during laparotomy. What is the best
procedure?
a) Bilateral salpingooophorectomy.
b) If possible, enucleation of the tumours (bilateral ovarian cystectomy) and request
quick histological diagnosis and continue accordingly.
c) Unilateral salpingoooforectomy and if the tumour proved to be malignant, second
look radical operation.
d) Bilateral oophorectomy.
e) Unilateral oophorectomy and meticulous inspection of the removed tissue by
naked eye by pathologist and continue accordingly
391.A 30 year old patient presented to an infertility clinic c/o recurrent pregnancy loss.
Which of the following factors would you investigate?
a) Rubella infection.
b) Fallopian tubes patency.
c) Cervical competence.
d) Antiphospholipid antibodies.
e) Uterine congenital anomalies.
392.The following are methods to diagnosis of ovulations.
a) Endometrial biopsy
b) Basal body temperature in the 1st half of the cycle.
c) Observing ovulation by ultrasound.
d) Vaginal cytology.
e) All of above
393.The most common cause of male factor infertility is.
a) Cryptorchidism
b) Testicular failure.
c) Obstruction.
d) Varicocele.
e) Impotence.
394.Regarding cervical carcinoma staging.
a) Impaired renal function is stage IIIb.
b) Invasion of the upper third of the vagina is stage IIb.
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c) Metastasis to the liver is stage IVa.
d) Carcinoma in situ is stage I.
e) Carcinoma involved the mucosa of the bladder or rectum is stage IVb.
395.Cervical carcinoma.
a) Squamous cell carcinoma most often present with and exophytic lesion.
b) Adjuvant CRT has no shown benefits for the patients who undergo operations.
c) Adeno-squamous carcinoma often present with exophytic lesions.
d) A lesion extended to the lower third of the vagina is stage IIb.
e) Palliative care has no role in early stages.
396.The following are true about cervical carcinoma.
a) Most of the predisposing factors are related with sexual behavior.
b) Is easy preventable and curable when early diagnosis is done.
c) From stage 0 to II b surgical treatment is possible with a high rate of cure.
d) Cervical cytology is the best method to do screening, and the risk for advanced
disease decrease when is done at least once during the life.
e) Advanced colposcopy can predict histological diagnosis.
397.About menopause.
a) Perimenopause is the period which precedes menopause.
b) It is define as amenorrhoea, hypooestrogenemia and elevated luteinizing
hormone.
c) It is characterized by amenorrhoea, hypooestrogenemia and elevated levels of
FSH.
d) Osteoporosis is long term complication.
e) None of the above.
398.A woman on her 40th birthday presents at the gynaecology clinic complaining of
irregular PV bleeding. The following are possible options.
a) Perimenopause should be considered among the causes.
b) Endometrial ablation by thermal balloon should be done immediately.
c) Transvaginal ultrasound can be of help.
d) Emergency D & C should be performed.
e) HRT should be started immediately.
399.Pelvic Organ Prolapse.
a) Commonly associated to collagen disease.
b) Always treated surgically.
c) Sims position commonly used for examination.
d) Standing position is the best for enterocele diagnoses.
e) All of the above.
400.Genital prolapse.
a) When a pelvic organ slips down and protrudes outside of the vagina.
b) Cystocele is when the anterior bladder wall slip down through the anterior vaginal
wall.
c) In a rectocele the rectum is prolapsed into the posterior vaginal wall.
d) Always treated with surgery.
e) Cannot be prevented
401.The following are true about VVF
a) Should be repaired at least 2 month after delivery.
b) Surgical repair is the only mode of treatment.
c) Amenorrhea is a very common finding.
d) The commonest cause in Uganda is surgery.
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e) The diagnosis is from direct inspection of the anterior vaginal wall using a Sims’
speculum.
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