402.Common findings in patients with adenocarcinoma of endometrium include all the
following, except.
a) Exogenous obesity.
b) Carbohydrate intolerance.
c) Hypertension.
d) History of anovulation.
e) History of multiple sexual partners.
403.According to the FIGO classification, endometrial carcinoma will evidence of
positive peritoneal cytology would classified as.
a) Stage Ia.
b) Stage Ib.
c) Stage IIb.
d) Stage IIIa.
e) Stage IVa .
404.All the following are increased in multiple gestation except.
a) Blood loss at delivery.
b) The evidence of congenital anomalies.
c) The evidence of cephalopelvic disproportion.
d) The incidence of placental abruption.
e) The incidence of malpresentation.
405.Combined OCPs contain.
a) A synthetic oestrogen.
b) A progestin.
c) Both.
d) Neither.
406.All the following antihypertensive medication are consider safe for short term use
in pregnancy except.
a) Captopril.
b) Methyldopa.
c) Hydralazine.
d) Nifedipine.
e) Labetalol.
407.The majority of ectopic pregnancies occurs in the.
a) Ampullary tube.
b) Ovary.
c) Isthmic tube.
d) Cervix.
e) Fimbriae tube.
408.Risk factors for postpartum endometritis include all the following except.
a) Prolonged labour.
b) Prolonged rupture of membranes.
c) Multiple vaginal exams.
d) Prolonged monitoring with intrauterine catheter.
e) Breast feeding.
409.The most common presenting symptom of eclamptic patient is.
a) Profuse vaginal bleeding.
b) Abdominal pain.
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c) Dyspareunia.
d) Convulsions.
e) Vomiting.
410.All the following factors affect wound healing except.
a) Nutrition.
b) Infection.
c) Anaemia.
d) High concentrations of vitamin c.
e) None of above.
411.The following are true about Physiological changes during pregnancy.
a) Uterus weight increased approximately 1 kg.
b) Plasma volume increased more than erythrocyte volume.
c) Cardiac silhouette elevated in chest X-ray.
d) Systolic murmur present as consequence of Valvular damage.
e) Abnormalities in concentration, attention and memory
412.Cardiovascular changes during pregnancy include:
a) Increased circulating volume up to 30 % over the pre conceptional values.
b) Increased circulating volume up to 45-50% over the pre conceptional values.
c) Electrical axis of the heart right deviated.
d) Increased heart silhouette in x-rays.
e) Diastolic murmur can be present up to 90 % of all pregnant woman
413.Leopold’s maneuvers include
a) Determination of SFH
b) Pelvic palpation
c) Lateral palpation
d) Auscultation
e) All the above
414.Which of the following are true about foetal aptitude?
a) Describes the relationship between the foetal and the pelvic inlet.
b) Describes the relationship between foetal parts.
c) Delivered is easy when aptitude is flexion
d) Delivery is easy when aptitude is extension.
e) Can change during labour.
415.The following are true about position.
a) Relates the denominator to the lower uterine segment.
b) Relates the denominator to the maternal pelvic brim.
c) POP is always an indication for c/section.
d) LOA is a normal position.
e) ROP is an abnormal position.
416.The following are physiological changes during puerperium
a) Maternal heart rate reduced by 10 to 15 beat/ min
b) Endometrium is in a physiological state within the 15 days after delivery
c) Increased water retention
d) On the 3rd postpartum day, the uterus is 2 cm above the umbilicus
e) Lochia disappears by the 7th postpartum day
417.Haematological findings in Iron deficiency anaemia.
a) Microcytic hyperchromic.
b) Macrocytic hypochromic.
c) Market anisocytosis.
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d) The mean corpuscular value is low.
e) Mean corpuscular haemoglobin is increased.
418.Anatomy of the female genital tract.
a) The uterine artery is a branch of the terminal part of the aorta.
b) The uterine artery is a branch of the internal iliac artery.
c) The uterine artery is the terminal branch of the internal femoral artery.
d) The uterine artery is a branch of the obsturator internus artery.
e) None of the above.
419.Which of the following are false?
a) POP can be corrected with obstetric forceps.
b) Vacuum extraction has no role in ROP position.
c) POP is frequently related to labour dystocias.
d) Episiotomy should be offered to all mothers with ROA position.
e) LOP position can be corrected spontaneously
420.ANC
a) Male partner involvement is encouraged
b) IPT is given monthly in a PG
c) IPT is given monthly in HIV
d) Routine investigations include urinalysis, HIV screening, Hb, and FBC
e) All the above
421.About APH.
a) Is any bleeding from genital tract before 28 WOA
b) Vasa praevia can be a cause.
c) Placenta previa is more common than Abruptio placenta.
d) Is a common cause of preterm delivery
e) Is the commonest cause of maternal death in Mbarara
422.The following are true statements about abruptio placenta.
a) Maternal conditions are always related to amount of PV bleeding.
b) Is frequently related with low consumption of coagulating factors.
c) Smoking has no role.
d) AROM and induction is contraindicated.
e) Is highly related to PPH
423.About APH.
a) Kleihauer-Betke test can help to establish the differential.
b) Placenta praevia type IIb is better delivery vaginally due to the lower risk for
bleeding.
c) Non obstetrical conditions don’t need to be rule out.
d) Tocolytic drugs are indicated in APH before 34 weeks.
e) History of PPH is a risk.
424.Ante partum haemorrhage.
a) Nitabush’s bands rupture is the explanation for haemorrhage in placenta previa.
b) Uterus surgeries are risk factor for abruptio placenta.
c) C/ section always should be done.
d) Can predispose to PPH.
e) Tocolysis is contraindicated
425.Abruptio placenta management
a) Mild abruption needs emergency c/section independently of the gestational age.
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b) Moderate abruption at 32 WOA: Tocolytic for 24 hours waiting for steroids
effects.
c) Moderate abruption, mother in shock, at 34 wks: Resuscitation, amniotomy
and induction of labour with Misoprostol.
d) Severe abruption, IUFD, with DIC: correction of DIC, Amniotomy and
emergency c/section.
e) None of the entire above is true.
426.Abruptio placenta.
a) Fibrinogen’s degradation products and D-dimmer are always elevated.
b) Heparin is indicated during DIC management.
c) Is a common complication of severe pre-eclampsia.
d) MgSO4 can be used in chronic abruption’s management.
e) Amniotomy is contraindicated.
427.About placenta previa
a) IVF has no role in the aetiology
b) Vaginal examination should always be done under general anaesthesia
c) Kleihauer-Betke test helps in differentiating from circumvallate placenta
d) Always prevent the engagement of the presenting part
e) None of the above.
428.Placenta Previa management
a) Tocolytics are indicated in preterm management
b) Vaginal delivery should always be attempted if the mother is not severely
affected
c) PPH should be anticipated
d) When mild bleeding at term, mother stable, labour should be awaited
e) All the above
429.About pre-eclampsia.
a) Commonly affecting primiparous or multiparous with new husband.
b) The incidence is around 40 % of pregnancy.
c) Impaired trophoblast invasion seems to be the most important factor in the
pathogenesis.
d) Immunological factor are involved.
e) Vascular endothelial growth factors increased.
430.About eclampsia’s management.
a) Control of the fits.
b) Control the blood pressure.
c) Plan to immediate delivery.
d) Magnesium sulphate is the best to prevent fit recurrences.
e) Caesarean section is always indicated.
431.The following are common complications of eclampsia.
a) Placenta praevia.
b) Abruptio placenta
c) Acute pulmonary oedema.
d) Disseminated intravascular coagulation.
e) Acute renal failure.
432.Physiopathology of pre-eclampsia.
a) Prostacyclin level higher than thromboxane A 2.
b) Placental growth factor level is elevated.
c) Endothelin production elevated.
d) Trophoblastic invasion of the spiral arteries is complete.
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e) None of the above.
433.All the following antihypertensive medication are consider safe for short term use in
pregnancy except.
a) Captopril.
b) Methyldopa.
c) Hydralazine.
d) Nifedipine.
e) Labetalol.
434.MgSO4.
a) Act by blocking the release of acetylcholine at the neuro-muscular plaque.
b) Is a natural calcium antagonist.
c) Is given 10 g 50% IV as initial dose.
d) Has no advantage over phenytoin in fit’s prevention.
e) Produce oligo-anuria.
435.Hydralazine’s use in pre-eclampsia.
a) Is a central vasodilator.
b) Is given as IV bolus initially: 10mg slowly followed by 5mg every 30 min.
c) Can be use as infusion.
d) Is given 5mg IV hourly.
e) The last dose should be given when diastolic BP is 90 mmHg.
436.Which statements are true and false?
a) Magnesium Sulfate is the drug of election to reduced B.P
b) Labetalol is not useful in the treatment of Pre-eclampsia.
c) Antihypertensive therapy in pre- eclampsia should be use when diastolic B.P is
>105 to 110 mmHg.
d) Hydralazine is associated with significantly more maternal hypotension than other
antihypertensive drugs.
e) Aldomet is the drug of election in Preexisting hypertension.
437.The most common presenting symptom of eclamptic patient is.
a) Profuse vaginal bleeding.
b) Abdominal pain.
c) Dyspareunia.
d) Convulsions.
e) Vomiting.
438.About hypertension during pregnancy.
a) Chronic hypertension is more common in nuliparous.
b) Pre- eclampsia is hypertension plus oedema.
c) Pre- eclampsia is hypertension plus Proteinuria after 20 WOA.
d) Unclassified hypertension is hypertension in a patient with previous renal
damage.
e) Is a common cause of admission in our hospital.
439.The following favours MTCT of HIV
a) High viral load
b) Type 1 HIV
c) High CD4 count
d) Sero conversion in pregnancy
e) HAART.
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440.In PMTCT
a) The primary means by which an infant can become infected with HIV is through
sexual intercourse
b) The primary means by which an infant can become infected with HIV is through
use of unsterilised instruments
c) The primary means by which an infant can become infected with HIV is through
mother to child
d) Mixed feeding has no major effect on transmission if the infant has no oral sores.
e) All the above are true
441.National HIV prevention strategies include
a) Primary Prevention of HIV and other STIs through ABC model
b) Premarital HIV screening
c) Pre -conception HIV screening
d) PMTCT in HIV positive pregnant mothers
e) All the above
442.About H.I.V infection. Mark T or F
a) ART naïve means that the client is not on any ARV including History of taking NVP
for PMTCT.
b) HIV is transmitted to the infant during breast feeding because HIV is present in
breast milk and yet the babies gut cells are susceptible to HIV infection.
c) AZT 300mg twice daily starting at 36 WOG till delivery and for I week after delivery
+ AZT syrup 5mg/kg twice daily for 7 days given to the infant is the regimen of
choice.
d) During labour and delivery the foetus may become infected as a result of maternal
– foetus blood exchange during contractions or mucous membranes as a result of
trauma or foetal swallowing of HIV containing blood or maternal secretions in the
birth canal.
e) All the above.
443.In PMTCT.
a) TRRD means an HIV positive mother has died.
b) TR means tested and results are reactive.
c) Nevirapine tablet is given to the mother as soon as labour is established
d) Lower rates of stillbirths have been reported in HIV positive mother.
e) The entire above are false.
444.In relation with episiotomy.
a) Is routinely performed on all HIV Positive prime gravid mothers in 2nd stage
b) Should only be repaired in cases of active bleeding
c) Must be performed after vacuum extraction
d) Can cause PPH
e) It is one of the components of modified obstetric practices of PMTCT.
445.Obstructed labour.
a) Wilm’s tumour is a cause
b) Partograph cannot detect.
c) Occurs only in Multigravidas
d) Bandle’s ring may manifest.
e) Always delivery by caesarean section.
446.Complications of obstructed labour.
a) Neonatal sepsis.
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b) Death.
c) PPH
d) Rectovaginal fistula
e) All the above.
447.Prevention of obstructed labour.
a) Use of partograph in labour.
b) Treatment of malaria
c) Use of TBS.
d) Good nutrition in childhood
e) Timely referrals.
448.Mode of delivery in obstructed labour.
a) Symphysiotomy is method of choice.
b) Forceps may be used.
c) Should be always by c/section.
d) Vaginal delivery is contraindicated.
e) Destructive operations always done.
449.Partograph in labour.
a) Started at 3 cm cervical dilatation
b) Base line foetal heart rate 105- 160 beats/ min
c) Always deliver by caesarean section when patient reaches action line
d) Alert line means do caesarean section
e) Ruptured membranes cannot be done.
450.Components of essential obstetric care include.
a) Parenteral antibiotics
b) Parenteral oxytocic drugs.
c) Use of anticonvulsants.
d) Manual removal of placenta.
e) Manual removal of retained products.
451.Comprehensive essential obstetric care includes:
a) Availability of surgical services.
b) Availability of anaesthesia services.
c) Blood transfusion services.
d) Obstetrics skills not needed
e) Traditional birth attendant with surgical skills.
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