661.Malaria in pregnancy.
a) Plasmodium vivax causes cerebral malaria.
b) Plasmodium malariae causes relapses.
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c) Chondroitin sulphate A receptors protects primegravidas against severe malaria.
d) grand multiparous are most prone to hyper parasitaemia than primegravidas
e) All pregnant women require 3 doses of intermittent presumptive treatment.
662.Malaria in pregnancy causes anaemia by the following mechanisms.
a) Dyserythropoiesis
b) Phagocytosis.
c) Haemolysis of RBC.
d) Bone marrow suppression.
e) Erythropioesis.
663.All the following antihypertensive medication are consider safe for short term use in
pregnancy except.
a) Captopril.
b) Methyldopa.
c) Hydralazine.
d) Nifedipine.
e) Labetalol.
664.The majority of ectopic pregnancies occurs in the.
a) Ampullary tube.
b) Ovary.
c) Isthmic tube.
d) Cervix.
e) Fimbrilae tube.
665.Risk factors for postpartum endometritis include all the following except
a) Prolonged labour.
b) Prolonged rupture of membranes.
c) Multiple vaginal exams.
d) Prolonged monitoring with intrauterine catheter.
e) Breast feeding.
666.The most common presenting symptom of eclamptic patient is.
a) Profuse vaginal bleeding.
b) Abdominal pain.
c) Dyspareunia.
d) Convulsions.
e) Vomiting.
667.All the following factors affect wound healing except.
a) Nutrition.
b) Infection.
c) Anaemia.
d) High concentrations of vitamin c.
e) None of above.
668.Objective of performing an episiotomy include.
a) To prolong 2nd stage of labour.
b) Preserve integrity of pelvic floor.
c) Forestall uterine prolapse.
d) Save baby’s brain from injury
e) It is a routine in every primegravida.
669.Features of a medio-lateral episiotomy include.
a) Extensions are common.
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b) Dyspareunia may be occasional.
c) Postoperative pain common.
d) More difficult to repair.
e) Blood loss is less compared to midline episiotomy.
670.Risk factors for perineal extension following episiotomy:
a) 2
nd stage arrest.
b) Vacuum extraction.
c) Small baby.
d) Persistent occipital posterior.
e) Nulliparity.
671.Regarding perineal tears:
a) 1
st degree: involves fourchet, perineal skin, vaginal mucosa, underlying fascia.
b) 2
nd degree: involves skin, mucosa membranes, fascias, muscle of perineal body,
but not the rectal sphincter.
c) 3
rd degree: external through skin, mucosa membrane, perineal body, and involve
anal sphincter.
d) 4
th extend through rectal mucosa to expose lumen of the rectum.
e) All of the above.
672.PPH
a) Active management of 3rd stage of labour may prevent it
b) Ruptured uterus is not a cause
c) Sheehan’s syndrome is a consequence
d) Is an indirect cause of maternal mortality
e) Endometritis is a cause of primary PPH.
673.Pre term labour management
a) Betamimetic drugs are indicated in patients with hyperthyroidism
b) Cyclo oxygenase is inhibited by indomethacin
c) Hydration and bed rest is highly effective in uterine activity inhibition
d) The only benefit provided by steroids in premature babies is acceleration of
foetal lung maturity
e) Pre delivery administration of steroids can be replaced by post natal
administration of surfactant.
674.The following are among potentially effective interventions to reduce the
incidence of preterm deliveries
a) Smoking cessation
b) Adequate diagnosis and management of asymptomatic bacteraemia
c) Treatment of bacterial vaginosis.
d) Good Alimentation.
e) None of the above
675.About placenta previa
a) IVF has no role in the aetiology
b) Vaginal examination should always be done under general anaesthesia
c) Kleihauer–Betke test helps in differentiating from circumvallate placenta
d) Always prevent the engagement of the presenting part
e) None of the above.
676.Placenta Previa management
a) Tocolytics are indicated in preterm management
b) Vaginal delivery should always be attempted if the mother is not severely
affected
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c) PPH should be anticipated
d) When mild bleeding at term, mother stable, labour should be awaited
e) All the above
677.Abruptio placenta
a) DIC is the commonest complication
b) Amniotic fluid embolism should not occur
c) Couvelaire uterus is always an indication for hysterectomy
d) Trauma is the commonest cause in Uganda
e) Amniotomy is only done when induction is indicated
678.Risk factors for perinatal death include:
a) Premature rupture of membranes.
b) Foetal hypoxia of unknown cause.
c) Chorioamnionitis.
d) Abruptio placenta.
e) Vasa praevia.
679.Risk factors for disseminated intravascular coagulation include:
a) Abruptio placenta.
b) Pre-eclampsia/eclampsia.
c) Amniotic fluid embolism.
d) Use of hypertonic saline to induce labour.
e) None of the above.
680.Multigravidas are at risk of:
a) Postpartum haemorrhage.
b) Anaemia in pregnancy.
c) Ruptured uterus.
d) Severe malaria in pregnancy.
e) Maternal depletion syndrome.
681.Multi foetal pregnancy.
a) Triplets are better delivered by caesarean section.
b) Induction of the labour is contraindicated.
c) Risk for locked twins is always present.
d) Cord prolapse may happen.
e) All the above.
682.Risk factor for PPH.
a) Severe malaria in pregnancy.
b) Pre-eclampsia/ eclampsia.
c) Precipitate labour.
d) Multiparity.
e) Prolonged labour.
683.Immediate complications for caesarean section include:
a) Severe haemorrhage.
b) Injure to neighbours organs.
c) Infections.
d) Haemorrhage.
e) Intestinal obstruction
684.Recommendations for elective caesarean section include
a) Primegravida with breech presentation at 30 wks in labour.
b) Successful repaired VVF.
c) Severe pre- eclampsia Bishop’s score below 6.
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d) One previous caesarean section history.
e) Multifoetal pregnancy (triplet).
685.The following are true about puerperal infection.
a) It is the infection of the genital tract of a woman while pregnant or after delivery.
b) The commonest site of infection is episiotomy wound.
c) Caesarean section has the greatest risk for infection.
d) Endometritis is the commonest infection.
e) None of the above.
686.The following are associated with breech presentation.
a) Polyhydramnios.
b) Oligohydramnios.
c) Multiple pregnancy
d) Contracted pelvis.
e) Low socio-economic status.
687.Which of the following are not among the risk factor for puerperal infection?
a) Poor antiseptic technique.
b) Prolonged labour/ruptured membranes.
c) External cephalic version.
d) Forceps delivery.
e) Bacterial vaginosis
688.Obstructed labour.
a) Occurs only in prime gravida.
b) Cystic hygroma is a cause.
c) Wilm’s tumour is not a cause.
d) Cannot occur when using partograph.
e) All of the above are false.
689.About foetal lie.
a) Relate foetal long axis to maternal long axis.
b) Relate foetal long axis to uterine long axis.
c) Can be established with ultrasound scan.
d) 1
st Leopold’s manoeuvre is used to identify it.
e) Transverse lie needing augmentation.
690.Which of the following are true about foetal aptitude?
a) Describes the relationship between the foetal and the pelvic inlet.
b) Describes the relationship between foetal parts.
c) Delivered is easy when aptitude is flexion
d) Delivery is easy when aptitude is extension.
e) Can change during labour.
691.The following are true about position.
a) Relates the denominator to the lower uterine segment.
b) Relates the denominator to the maternal pelvic brim.
c) POP is always an indication for c/section.
d) LOA is a normal position.
e) ROP is an abnormal position.
692.Which of the following are false?
a) POP can be corrected with obstetric forceps.
b) Vacuum extraction has no role in ROP position.
c) POP is frequently related to labour dystocias.
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d) Episiotomy should be offered to all mothers with ROA position.
e) LOP position can be corrected spontaneously.
693.Recommendations for elective caesarean section include
a) Most common mode of delivery in our service.
b) Is always indicated in previous caesarean section uterine scar.
c) Patients don’t need to be prepared.
d) Is done in all cases of foetal distress.
e) Mother can start oral feeding after 6-8 hours.
694.About breech presentation.
a) Most are delivered by caesarean section.
b) First stage of labour is quicker than cephalic presentation.
c) Cord prolapse is not a risk.
d) Forceps cannot be used for deliveries.
e) Can be managed by a TBS.
695.The following are true about severe pre eclampsia management.
a) Methyldopa is the treatment of choice during conservative management.
b) Toxaemic profile done weekly during conservative management.
c) IGR, HELLP syndrome, CID, visual disturbances aren’t among the aggravating
sign for pre eclampsia.
d) MgSO4 given for eclampsia prevention always IV.
e) All patient delivered by c/section.
696.Obstructed labour.
a) Occur only in primegravida.
b) Cystic hygroma is a cause.
c) Wilm’s tumour is not a cause.
d) Cannot be occurs when using partograph.
e) All of the above are false.
697.The following are common complications of eclampsia.
a) Abruptio placenta.
b) Foetal distress.
c) Meningitis.
d) Cardiovascular accident.
e) Increased rate of c/section deliveries.
698.Classic sign and symptoms of complete uterine rupture include:
a) Sudden onset of tearing abdominal pain.
b) Cessation of uterine contractions.
c) Absent of foetal heart.
d) Recession of the presenting part
e) All of the above
699.Rupture uterus surgical options.
a) Total abdominal hysterectomy.
b) Subtotal hysterectomy.
c) Repair of rupture alone.
d) Repair rupture and tubal ligation.
e) Laparoscope.
700.About Ectopic pregnancy.
a) Laparoscopy has not role in diagnosis.
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b) Arias-Stella phenomenon reaction rules out possibility of Ectopic.
c) Methotrexate use is recommended in ruptured tubal Ectopic.
d) Does not occur in primegravidas.
e) May co-exist with a PID.
701.Predisposing factors to ectopic pregnancy include:
a) Fertilization of an unextruded ovum.
b) Chronic salpingitis and recurrent PID.
c) Congenital tubal anomalies like diverticulosis, atresia and accessory ostia.
d) Exogenous hormone use.
e) Previous tubal or pelvic surgeries.
702.A family planning provider should be sure that a FP client is not pregnant if:
a) Client has not sexual intercourse since the last normal menses.
b) Correctly and consistently using a reliable method of contraception.
c) Client is within the first 7 days after normal menses.
d) Is within 4 weeks postpartum for non-lactating women
e) Is fully breastfeeding
703.Oral contraceptives.
a) Can predispose to venous thromboembolism.
b) Act primarily by inhibiting ovulation.
c) May cause amenorrhea.
d) Can predispose to ischemic heart disease.
e) Can be used as emergency contraception.
704.The following are examples of third generation progesterone.
a) Misoprostol.
b) Gestodene.
c) Desogestrol.
d) Norgestimate.
e) Mestranol.
705.Depo-Provera.
a) Contains the progesterone laevonorgestrel.
b) Is a combine injectable contraceptive.
c) Contains medroxyprogesterone acetate.
d) Can cause breakthrough bleeding.
e) Return to fertility is immediate after terminating its use.
706.The following can lead to male infertility.
a) Excessive smoking.
b) Morbid obesity.
c) Orchidopexy.
d) Vasectomy.
e) Oligospermia.
707.Norplant II.
a) Contains progesterone only.
b) Is effective for up to 5 years.
c) Return to fertility after its removal is immediate.
d) Is inserted subcutaneously under the medial aspect of the arm.
e) Can predispose to thromboembolism.
708.The following are 3rd generation progesterones
a) Etonogestrel
b) Gestodene.
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c) Mestranol.
d) Norgestrinate.
e) Megestrol.
709.The following are non-contraceptive benefits of COC’s
a) Protection against ectopic pregnancies
b) Reduced risk of ovarian cancer
c) Relief from menstrual disorders.
d) Improvement in bone mineral density.
e) Reduced risk of Rheumatoid arthritis.
710.Combined oral contraceptives
a) Suppress ovulation by diminishing the frequency of GnRH pulses and halting the
luteinising hormone surge.
b) Make the cervical mucus thick, scanty and less viscous.
c) When administered correctly and constantly they confer a greater than 99%
method effectiveness in preventing pregnancy.
d) Alter tubal transport in favour of fertilization.
e) Are indicated for the treatment of anovulatory DUB.
711.The NUVA ring
a) Is an intrauterine ring
b) Contains the progesterone, ketodesogestrel
c) Is inserted after every 4 weeks
d) Contains ethinyl estradiol
e) Main side effect is breakthrough bleeding
712.The following are intrauterine contraceptive devices
a) Copper T300A
b) Mirena.
c) Progestasert.
d) NUVA ring.
e) Organon.
713.Concerning implantable contraceptives
a) Norplant is a two-rod haexonorgestrel system
b) Implanon is a single-rod implant that contains etonorgestrel acetate as the active
hormone.
c) Norplant II is a laevonorgestrel containing contraceptive that is effective for up to
5 years.
d) Acute liver disease is an absolute contraindication to Norplant use.
714.The following plasmodium species cause a relapse of malaria
a) P. falciparum
b) P. ovale
c) P. malaria
d) P. vivax
e) P. lugninate
715.Severe malaria in pregnancy
a) Placental site specific antibodies prevent P. falciparum sequestration in the
placenta in primegravidas.
b) Immunosupression effected through high levels of cortisol in pregnancy, explains
the increase in susceptibility to falciparum malaria in pregnancy.
c) Most immune pregnant women remain asymptomatic even in the presence of
heavy parasitaemia.
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d) Red cell sequestration starts in the place uta, in the sixth month of pregnancy.
e) The relation between malaria and impaired foetal growth is mediated through
anaemia and placental parasitation.
716.The following mechanisms explain the anaemia caused by malaria in pregnancy
a) Haemolysis of parasitized red blood cells.
b) Haemolysis of non-parasitized red blood cells.
c) Sequestration of parasitized red blood cells.
d) Dyserythropoiesis.
e) Erythrophagocytosis.
717.The following pathological lesions are caused by severe falciparum malaria
a) Abundance of malarial pigment in the reticuloendothelial system.
b) Oedematosis brain with broad, flattened red gyri.
c) Presence of haemoglobin in the renal tubules.
d) Kupffer cells are increased in size and number.
e) Pericardial and endocardial petechiae
718.The following syndromes are associated with chronic malaria
a) Nephritic syndrome.
b) Nephrotic syndrome.
c) Tropical splenomegaly sundrome.
d) Burkitt’s Lumphoma syndrome.
e) Pickiwilliam syndrome
719.The following treatment regimens are currently recommended by MOH as for
treatment of simple malaria in pregnancy
a) Oral quinine
b) Oral Chloroquine and Fansidar
c) Coartem
d) Artemether and Lumefantrine
e) Parenteral chloroquine
720.Bartholin’s abscess
a) Is the end result of acute Bartholinitis
b) Common organisms found are Staphylococcus and Chlamydia.
c) The Bartholin’s gland duct gets blocked by fibrosis and the exudates pent up
inside to produce abscess.
d) Usually presnts as a unilateral tender swelling beneath the posterior half of the
labium minus
e) Incision and curettage (I&C) is the treatment of choice.
721.Bartholin’s cyst
a) May develop in the duct or gland.
b) The content is usually glairly cheesy fund.
c) Is usually located on the anterior half of the labia majora.
d) Incision of drainage is the treatment of choise.
e) Marsupialization is the treatment of choise.
722.The following are common causes of cyclic chronic pelvic pain
a) Dysmenorrhea.
b) Ovarian remnant syndrome.
c) Mittelschmerz.
d) Retroverted uterus
e) Pelvic congestion syndrome
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723.The following are contraindications for insertion of CU T380A.
a) Acute pelvic infection.
b) Dysfunctional uterine bleeding.
c) Suspected pregnancy.
d) Prolapsed uterus.
e) Severe dysmenorrhea.
724.The following are indications for removal of an IUCD
a) Flaring up of salpingitis.
b) Perforation of uterus.
c) One year premeopause.
d) Pregnancy occurring with the device in situ.
e) Persistence intermenstrual bleeding.
725.The following steroidal contraceptives contain progesterone
a) NET-EN
b) Cyclofen.
c) Mesygyna
d) Mirena.
e) Organon.
726.The following chemicals can be used for emergency contraception
a) Premarin.
b) Laevonorgestrel
c) Mitepristone.
d) Mirena.
e) CUT380A
727.The following are ovarian causes of female infertility
a) Stein-Leventhal syndrome.
b) LUF syndrome.
c) Resistant ovarian syndrome.
d) Asherman’s syndrome.
e) Sheehan’s syndrome.
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