728.The following statements are true about pre- eclampsia.
a) Is among the commonest cause of maternal mortality in MRRH.
b) SFlt-1 prevents the correct differentiation and invasion of the trophoblast.
c) Aspirin inhibit the synthesis of prostacyclin.
d) Thromboxane A2 is a potent vasodilator.
e) None of the entire above is true.
729.MgSO4.
a) Act by preventing the release of acetylcholine at neuromuscular plaque.
b) Prevent the entry of calcium to the damaged endothelial cells.
c) Stimulate the N-methyl-D-aspartate receptors.
d) Toxicity appears with concentration of 8 to 10 meq/L.
e) Pulmonary oedema is a common complication.
730.APH.
a) Abortion is a common cause of APH.
b) In patient with placenta praevia type II ARON should be done followed by labour
induction.
c) In a patient with chronic abruptio placenta aspirin should be given 6 hourly to
protect placental blood flow.
d) FHR absence in a severe abruption always means IUFD.
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e) Severe abruption with IUFD and DIC should be delivered immediately by
emergency C/section.
731.How does MgSO4 act in controlling and preventing eclamptic fit?
a) Decreasing the release the acetylcholine at the neuromuscular plaque.
b) Acting as physiological calcium antagonist.
c) Blocking excitatory amino- acid receptors.
d) All of the above.
e) a) and b) above.
732.The following are true statements about abruptio placenta.
a) Maternal conditions are always related to amount of PV bleeding.
b) Is frequently related with low consumption of coagulating factors.
c) Smoking has no role.
d) ARM and induction is contraindicated.
e) Is highly related to PPH.
733.HIV in pregnancy.
a) Most of the transmission to the baby occurs during post partum.
b) Breastfeeding is contraindicated.
c) ARVs are not important.
d) Nevirapine alone is no longer used in Uganda for prophylaxis.
e) Elective C/section is helpful in decrease the MTCT.
734.In PPH.
a) Blood transfusion is always required.
b) Blood transfusion may not be required.
c) Bleeding is from the uterus.
d) a) and c) above.
e) All of the above.
735.Analgesia during labour.
a) Pudendal nerve block is not recommended.
b) Is not recommended in active labour.
c) Is commonly practiced.
d) Narcotics are commonly used in MUTH.
e) Companion support in labour has shown to help.
736.Maternal changes in puerperium.
a) Return to normality is 2 weeks after delivery.
b) Return to normal 20 weeks after delivery.
c) Return to normal 42 weeks after delivery.
d) Return to normal 32 days after delivery.
e) None of the above
737.Physiological management of 3rd stage of labour
a) Oxytocin 10IU IM is given on the anterior thigh
b) Controlled cord traction is done
c) No intervention is done
d) Practiced by mid wives and TBA’s in the village
e) Associated with PPH
738.Symptoms of pregnancy.
a) Quickening is experienced at about 18 weeks in multigravida.
b) The uterus may palpable abdominally by 12 wks.
c) Lightening is the reduction in fundal length witch occurs between 38-40 wks.
d) Foetal heart can be heard using Pinard stethoscope at 24 wks.
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739.Presumptive manifestation of pregnancy includes.
a) Amenorrhea
b) Nausea and vomiting presence of Montgomery tubercles.
c) Positive Golden sign.
d) Leucorrhoea.
740.Clinical parameter of gestational age.
a) Quickening appreciated about 17 wks in multigravidas and 18 in primegravidas.
b) Foetal biparietal diameter accurate before 16 WOA.
c) Foetal heart tones may be heard at 20 wks by Pinard stethoscope.
d) Ossified foetal bone appears at 12 to 14 wks.
741.During embryonic development the trophoblast is.
a) Endodermal in origin.
b) Mesodermal in origin.
c) Ectodermal in origin.
d) All of the above.
742.The following are true about the refocused antenatal care.
a) There is reduced mother health worker time contact.
b) It is cheaper on the mothers.
c) The fewer attendances are will give heavier clinics as more mothers come on
particular day.
d) There is less satisfaction to the mothers as they are seen less.
743.About post-abortal care.
a) Antibiotics cover to prevent infection.
b) Immediate post abortion family planning to avoid another pregnancy.
c) Connection to other reproductive health services.
d) All of the above.
744.HIV in pregnancy MTCT
a) An ante partum haemorrhage is not obstetric factor for transmission.
b) Scalp blood sampling increase risk of transmission.
c) Mixed feeding decrease risk.
d) Episiotomy should not be used in HIV positive mothers.
745.The following situations and practice in lactating mothers increase the risk of MTCT
of HIV.
a) Mixed feeding.
b) Infections of the breast and the nipple.
c) When the baby has no sores in the mouth.
d) Unprotected sex in infected parents.
746.About cardiac disease in pregnancy.
a) Breathless on washing cups and clothes with palpitations and chest pain: stage 3.
b) Breathless on washing cups and clothes with palpitations and chest pain at rest:
stage 3.
c) Had no dyspnoea on running or palpitation or chest pain, but got congestive heart
failure in early pregnancy due to PVO: stage 4.
d) None of the above.
747.Diabetic in pregnancy.
a) Oral hypoglycaemic are recommended.
b) Nutritional counselling and exercise are not part of management.
c) Shoulder dystocia may occur during delivery.
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d) Caesarean section is always the mode of delivery.
748.Multiple pregnancy.
a) The mother should be admitted due to the associated ante partum complications.
b) The mother should be admitted due to the associated morbidity and mortality.
c) The mother need more frequent visits to reduce morbidity and mortality.
d) None of the above.
749.Assessment in IUGR.
a) Uterine fundal length, maternal weight gain, and foetal quickening.
b) Abdominal circumference is the best parameter during follow up.
c) Oligo hydramnios is usually associated.
d) Femur length/abdominal circumference is the best us parameter.
750.About pre eclampsia.
a) Diagnosis is done if: BP is 140/90 in two occasions 3 hours apart.
b) Low levels of calciuria may be present.
c) Low calcium intake is one of the most probable cause.
d) Is most common in elder and grand multiparous.
751.Ante partum haemorrhage (Placenta previa).
a) All women with APH should be delivered by caesarean section.
b) Induction of labour can be done in class I and II.
c) Speculum examination can be done when the bleeding stop and the mother is
stable.
d) Anticipate PPH.
752.During manual removal of the placenta.
a) Give ergometrine /oxytocin prior to the procedure.
b) Give antibiotics 24 hour after the procedureand continue for 5 to 7 days.
c) Place one hand on the abdomen, press down and while applying traction on the
cord.
d) All of the above.
753.Anaemia in malaria is cause by.
a) Dyserythropoiesis.
b) Erythrophagocytosis.
c) Haemolysis of parasitized and not parasitized red blood cell.
d) Fever.
754.Malaria in pregnancy.
a) Plasmodium vivax causes cerebral malaria.
b) Plasmodium malariae causes relapses.
c) Chondroitin sulphate A receptors Protect PG’s against severe malaria.
d) Prime gravida are more prone to hyperparasitaemia than grand multiparous.
755.The following are risk factor for pre eclampsia.
a) Primegravida.
b) History of genetic disorders.
c) Diabetes mellitus.
d) New husband.
756.About management of severe pre eclampsia.
a) Severe pre eclampsia should be managed as out patient after control of the blood
pressure.
b) Magnesium sulphate should be used in all cases routinely.
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c) Methyldopa is the best option to treat the crisis.
d) Aspirin 80 mg daily may help in preventing pre-eclampsia in patient at high risk.
757.About eclampsia pathophysiological explanation may be.
a) The presence of amniotic embolization of the brain arteries.
b) Vasoconstriction of the brain arteries with subsequent ischemia, infartions,
oedema and perivascular haemorrhages.
c) Because the hypovolaemia in pre eclamptic patient causing cerebral hypoxia.
d) Because the hypercoagulability of the blood causing stroke and partial;
infarctions.
758.About eclampsia.
a) Difenyl hidantoine is the drug of choice.
b) Difenyl hidantoine can be used as secure alternative in the absent of magnesium
sulphate.
c) Delivery is indicated only after complete stabilization of the patient.
d) Vaginal delivery is contraindicated.
759.The following are true about molar pregnancy.
a) Elevated hCG levels more than 40000IU for the β fraction in serum.
b) Pelvic ultrasound assessment is needed.
c) TSH, T3 and T4 assessment.
d) Can be followed by a choriocarcinoma.
760.About gestational trophoblastic tumour
a) Stage I Resistant: combination therapy or hysterectomy adjunctive therapy, local
resection and local infusion.
b) Stage II and III high risk Initial Tx. Second line combination therapy.
c) Stage III. Tumour extends to lung with known or unknown genital tract
involvement.
d) May appear in 4% of all molar pregnancy.
761.Instrumental delivery.
a) Is used to shortening prolonged first stage of labour.
b) Is contraindicated in multigravida.
c) Maternal pelvis should be adequate.
d) Can be used even in not fully dilated cervix.
762.PPH.
a) Best ensure 2IV access lines 24 gauge size.
b) Surgery is always the best option.
c) Team work is mandatory.
d) Vaginal lacerations are the commonest cause.
763.During resuscitation of the new born.
a) Start by Apgar scoring the baby.
b) Suck the mouth first as the baby has liquor in the mouth and the pharynx.
c) Intravenous line is mandatory as the new born may need Iv antibiotics.
d) All of the above.
764.Abruptio placenta
a) Can lead to DIC.
b) Can cause Couvelaire uterus.
c) Is associated with malaria.
d) No risk factor for PPH
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765.Elective caesarean section.
a) Should only be done in mother’s request.
b) Is mandatory in a mother with one previous caesarean section.
c) Done for all TTR mothers.
d) Can help in MTCT.
766.Habitual abortions
a) Best define as 3 or more consecutive spontaneous losses of nonviable foetus.
b) Investigations should be done before another pregnancy occur.
c) Spontaneous abortion due to infections.
d) Incompetent cervix is a common cause.
767.Urge incontinence.
a) Due to detrusor hypersensitivity.
b) Due to detrusor hyper activity.
c) Majority of cause is idiopathic.
d) Amount of urine passed is small.
768.Myomectomy.
a) Is treatment of choice for uterine fibroid in a 60 year old woman
b) Is associated with operation heavy blood loss.
c) Can be done using hysteroscope.
d) Can be done vaginally.
769.In urinary incontinence.
a) The intra vesicle pressure is higher than intra urethral pressure.
b) The intra urethral pressure is higher than intra vesicle pressure.
c) There is lowered urethral pressure.
d) There is descent of the bladder neck and proximal urethra such that enable
retention of urine.
770.The following are common symptoms of uterine fibroids.
a) Low abdominal mass.
b) Low abdominal pain.
c) Pressure
d) Inter menstrual bleeding.
771.The following can be related with ectopic pregnancy.
a) Previous tubal surgery.
b) Peptic ulcer disease
c) COC pills.
d) Infertility.
772.Vasectomy.
a) Leads to immediate sterility.
b) Cause impotence.
c) Involve ligation of efferentia.
d) Is a female surgical sterilization technique.
773.The following are indication for D & C.
a) Missed abortion.
b) Ca. endometrium.
c) Endometritis
d) DUB.
774.Pre malignant lesion of the cervix.
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a) HPV subtyping allowing identify those women who will develop cervical cancer.
b) Hysterectomy is indicated as treatment for all premalignant disease in the cervix.
c) Combine oral contraceptive give protection.
d) Male factor is not important in the pathogenesis.
775.Vaginal foaming tablets.
a) Active ingredients is nonoxynolol 2 and ethanol
b) Act by causing endometrial thinning.
c) They prevent sexually transmitted infections.
d) Is the elective method in adolescent.
776.The following are true about VVF
a) Should be repaired at least 2 month after delivery.
b) Surgical repair is the only mode of treatment
c) Amenorrhea is a very common finding
d) The commonest cause in Uganda is surgery.
777.About PID.
a) Generalized abdominal pain.
b) Vaginal discharge
c) Vaginal examination will produce tenderness with cervical motion.
d) Lower abdominal pain.
778.Norplant II.
a) Contain 3 sub dermal implantable rods.
b) Is effective up to 4 years.
c) Contains Etonogestrel as active oestrogen.
d) Can inhibit ovulation.
779.The following are indication for removal cervical cerclage.
a) Rupture of the membranes.
b) Haemorrhages
c) Elevations of blood pressure.
d) Uterine contractions.
780.The following are methods to diagnosis of ovulations.
a) Endometrial biopsy
b) Basal body temperature in the 1st half of the cycle.
c) Observing ovulation by ultrasound.
d) Vaginal cytology.
781.In cervical incompetence.
a) Diagnosis is done usually after abortion occur.
b) It is a habitual mid trimester abortion
c) Rupture of membranes is not a feature.
d) The only option of treatment is inserting a cerettage.
782.Micro invasive cervical of the cervixis.
a) Carcinoma in situ.
b) An infiltrative process with distant metastasis.
c) A microscopic infiltrative process without lymphatic invasion or metastasis.
d) A process with distant microscopic metastasis but the basal membrane is intact.
783.The following are true about uterine fibroids.
a) Is associated with cervical carcinoma.
b) Can be associated with endometrial carcinoma
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c) Are frequently found in grand multiparous.
d) Can degenerate easily to a malignancy.
784.About anatomy of the genital tract.
a) Ovary is covered with peritoneum.
b) The ovarian arteries arise from the aorta just bellow the renal artery.
c) The vaginal artery is a branch of external iliac artery.
d) The uterine artery passes medially to reach the uterus at about the level of the
fundus.
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