MCQs for OBGYN 7

MCQs for OBGYN 7

 251.Lumefantrine/artesunate is indicated during pregnancy for

a) As 1st line in non complicated malaria in the 1st trimester

b) As 1st line for complicated malaria in the 2nd trimester

c) As 2nd line for non complicated malaria in the 2nd trimester

d) After giving IV quinine for complicated malaria at any gestational age

e) None of the entire above

252.About HIV/ AIDS in pregnancy

a) Sperm washing is a very effective way to prevent both the mother and her baby

b) There is not difference between low and high viral load mothers about MTCT risk

c) AZT Cannot be used as monotherapy from 28 WOG

d) A combination of AZT during pregnancy with a single dose of nevirapine during

labour increased the risk to the mother due to side effects

e) In patient with combination therapy if the treatment is discontinued, the drugs

should not be discontinued at the same time

253.About PMTCT

a) Mothers taking HAART during pregnancy have similar outcome like those on

Combination regimens in preventing MTCT

b) Caesarean section is recommended in both low and high viral loads

c) Infant formula is offered to protect the baby because it has been enriched with

maternal immunoglobulin.

d) Malarial infection can increase the risk of MTCT

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e) Dapsone is used for prophylaxis of OIs

254.An HIV positive mother delivers a healthy baby. PCR confirms that this baby is HIV

negative at birth. What will you do to prevent MTCT

a) Breast feeding for only three months will protect the baby

b) Since the baby is negative, Nevirapine is not necessary

c) Replacement feeding with cow milk is the ideal

d) Wet Nursing is a recognised option

e) Condom use has no role in protecting this baby.

255.The following statements are true about PMTCT

a) The sero prevalence of HIV among pregnant women in Mbarara region is 6.8%

b) The sero prevalence of HIV among pregnant women in Uganda is 13%

c) PMTCT interventions reduce transmission of HIV to infants by 50%

d) Breast feeding alone contributes 35% of MTCT

e) Family planning is important

256.PMTCT

a) PEP: AZT/3TC or TDF/3TC for 1 month

b) PEP: Apply antiseptic, Know your status, LFTs, follow up

c) AZT: Hb<8g/dl, Neutropenia, monotherapy, suspension

d) Initiation of HAART: CD4>200, Triomune, Pre ART register, Comprehensive HIV

card

e) OIs: Dapsone, Fluconazole, Cotrimoxazole

257.About pregnancy infections.

a) Pregnancy is advised to be terminated in active renal TB.

b) Lobar pneumonia may cause abortion and intrauterine foetal death.

c) Treponema pallidum crosses the placenta.

d) But in spite of the above mentioned the foetus is usually free of syphilitic

infection.

e) Positive VDRL is not a sure sign of syphilis.

258.Maternal changes in puerperium.

a) Return to normality is 2 weeks after delivery.

b) Return to normal 20 weeks after delivery.

c) Return to normal 42 weeks after delivery.

d) Return to normal 32 days after delivery.

e) None of the above.

259.About puerperium.

a) The following 4 weeks after delivery.

b) At the 3rd postpartum day the uterus 2 cm above the umbilicus.

c) The lochia disappear at the 7th postpartum day.

d) Milk retention can cause puerperal infection.

e) Psychosis is not a possible complication.

260.The following are physiological changes during puerperium.

a) Maternal heart rate reduced in proxy 10 to 15 beat/ min.

b) Endometrium is in a physiological state within the 15 days after delivery.

c) Increased water retention.

d) Oedema re-absorption.

e) Foul smelling vaginal discharge.

261.About puerperal infection.

a) Manual removal of the placenta is a predisposing factor.

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b) Internal foetal monitoring has no role.

c) Prophylactic antibiotic can help to prevent it.

d) Poor socioeconomic condition and poor hygiene have an important role.

e) External cephalic version is a predisposing factor.

262.About Malaria in pregnancy.

a) Can cause preterm deliveries.

b) Can lead to maternal death.

c) Anaemia is the commonest complication.

d) Can cause IUGR.

e) Renal failure can be a complication.

263.Malaria in pregnancy.

a) Coma, severe anaemia and convulsion, can be indicative of severe malaria.

b) Can be prevented by; using mosquito net, education, and fansidar administration

4 times during pregnancy.

c) Should be always treated with IV quinine.

d) Early diagnosis and treatment don’t help in preventing complications.

e) Primegravidas are protected against hyperparasitaemia.

264.The following are effects of progesterone in pregnancy.

a) Reduces vascular tone and BP increases.

b) Reduces vascular tone and peripheral temperatures increases.

c) Increases vascular tone and BP increases.

d) Increases vascular tone and BP decreases.

e) All of the above.

265.Vacuum extraction:

a) Is a spontaneous vertex delivery.

b) Commonly done in our unit.

c) Can be done on face presentation.

d) Smallest cup is ideal.

e) Analgesics are not required.

266.Lactational amenorrhea (LAM) method of contraception:

a) Is a permanent method.

b) Can be practiced when baby is 8 month.

c) Is about 80% effective.

d) Is highly when mother is started her periods.

e) All of the above.

267.Emergency contraception:

a) Combined oral pills are more effective than the progesterone only pills.

b) Progesterone only pills (ovreete) 2 doses 12 hours apart are enough.

c) Intra uterine device can be used within 7 days.

d) Is a routine method of contraception.

e) All of the above are false.

268.A family planning provider should be sure that a FP client is not pregnant if:

a) Client has not sexual intercourse since the last normal menses.

b) Correctly and consistently using a reliable method of contraception.

c) Client is within the first 7 days after normal menses.

d) Is within 4 weeks postpartum for non-lactating women

e) Is fully breast feeding.

269.Oral contraceptives.

a) Can predispose to venous thromboembolism.

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b) Act primarily by inhibiting ovulation.

c) May cause amenorrhea.

d) Can predispose to ischemic heart disease.

e) Can be used as emergency contraception

270.The following are steroidal contraceptives.

a) NUVA ring.

b) Mirena.

c) Mifepristone.

d) Cyclofem

e) Progestasert.

271.About infertility Tubal patency can be investigated

a) By laparoscopy and hydrotubation

b) By ultrasound and hydrotubation

c) By hystero- salpingography

d) By hydrotubation and tubal insufflations

e) By laparotomy and hydrotubation

272.The satisfactory number of spermatozoa is

a) 250-250 million/ml

b) 20-250 million/ml

c) 15-250 million/ml

d) 8-10 million/ml

e) 300- 350 million/ml

273.The following factors can lead to male infertility.

a) Excessive smoking.

b) Morbid obesity.

c) Orchidopexy.

d) Vasectomy.

e) Mumps infections.

274.These are germ cell tumour.

a) Embryonal carcinoma.

b) Dysgerminomas.

c) Granulosa cell tumour.

d) Serous tumour.

e) Teratomas.

275.Endometriosis.

a) Functional endometrial tissue in the myometrium.

b) Present up to 25% among the infertile women.

c) Endometrial tissue’s transplantation can explain all cases.

d) Increases phagocytosis of spermatozoids.

e) Affected patient is always symptomatic.

276.About endometriosis.

a) GnRH analogs effective 100% in cure patient.

b) COC are also used and effective.

c) Surgery has important role.

d) Frequency is reduced with pregnancies.

e) Only present among reproductive age women.

277.Genital prolapse.

a) When a pelvic organ slips down and protrudes outside of the vagina.

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b) Cystocele is when the anterior bladder wall slip down through the anterior vaginal

wall.

c) In a rectocele the rectum is prolapsed into the posterior vaginal wall.

d) Always treated with surgery.

e) Cannot be prevented.

278.Genital prolapse risk factors:

a) Multiparity.

b) Chronic respiratory processes.

c) Big intra abdominal masses have no clinical importance.

d) Collagen’s diseases are no important.

e) Cultural habits.

279.About cervical carcinoma.

a) Ugandan women have high risk.

b) Absent of screening programs increase the risk.

c) Viral infections have the main role.

d) The prognosis improves with earlier diagnoses.

e) Can be prevented.

280.Cervical carcinoma screening methods.

a) Un aided visual inspecting with acetic acid.

b) HPV DNA tests.

c) Visual inspection with naked eyes.

d) Can be done at 60 years of age.

e) Not recommended after cryotherapy.

281.Carcinoma of the cervix management.

a) Stage I A1 cone can be done.

b) Radiotherapy can be used to cure the disease.

c) It is a chemo sensitive cancer.

d) Chemo-radiation can be done.

e) Second look surgery is indicated.

282.About choriocarcinoma.

a) Chest x ray is mandatory in the management.

b) Raise HCG level less than 10 % in two consecutive weeks after three normal

measurements is a bad prognosis sign.

c) Stage II and III low risk should be treated with first line combination

chemotherapy.

d) Stage IV always considered as high risk.

e) Complicated brain metastasis needing craniotomy for management.

283.In a patient with recurrent abortion, which of the following are possible causes?

a) Sigmond-Sheehan’s syndrome.

b) Cervical incompetence.

c) Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome.

d) TORCH infections.

e) Congenital anomalies of the genital tract.

284.You are on call at MUTH and are assessing a 16 year old patient with peritonitis and

septic shock due to a post abortal sepsis. Which of the following would you consider

in the management?

a) Broad spectrum antibiotic combination.

b) Patient resuscitation with 5 % dextrose.

c) Fluid challenge.

d) Blood and plasma transfusion.

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e) Laparotomy as soon as patient’s condition allowed it.

285.The following are sexually transmitted diseases.

a) Soft chancre (chancroid) is caused by Haemophilus ducreyi.

b) Lymphogranuloma venereum is caused by Chlamydia trachomatis.

c) Genital warts are caused by human papillomavirus.

d) Herpes genitalis is caused by herpes simplex virus.

e) Tinea cruris (ringworm) is caused by viruses.

286.Preventing fistula in obstetric care.

a) Development of primary health system is not important.

b) Improvement of transport facilities.

c) Adequate health policies.

d) Adequate vaccination’s programs.

e) Women’s rights empowering.

287.Criminal abortion prevention.

a) Improving accessibility to family planning method.

b) Maternal education level has no role.

c) Legalization of elective abortion.

d) Adequate sexual education programs.

e) Health policies are no related.

288.About Ectopic pregnancy.

a) PID is the commonest cause.

b) Congenital anomalies have no role.

c) Intrauterine device is a predisposing factor.

d) Always is outside of the uterus.

e) Can be diagnosed by ultrasound.

289.Ectopic pregnancy.

a) Conservative management is not possible.

b) Conservative surgery is an option of treatment.

c) After surgery the risk is increased.

d) Abdominal Ectopic sometimes is diagnosed in the moment of surgery.

e) Cervical Ectopic can be an indication of total abdominal hysterectomy.

290.About Ectopic pregnancy localization.

a) The commonest localization is the tube.

b) Ampullar localization is the commonest in the tube.

c) Abdominal Ectopic pregnancy is always primary.

d) Cervical Ectopic can be secondary.

e) Interstitial Ectopic is commonly seen.

291.About PID.

a) Generalized abdominal pain.

b) Vaginal discharge

c) Vaginal examination will produce tenderness with cervical motion.

d) Lower abdominal pain.

e) Profuse vaginal bleeding.

292.Surgery for PID is done:

a) To every severe PID patient.

b) In abscess formation.

c) Not sure of diagnosis.

d) For social reasons or indications.

e) All the above.

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293.The following are true about uterine fibroids.

a) Is associated with cervical carcinoma.

b) Can be associated with endometrial carcinoma

c) Are frequently found in grand multiparous.

d) Can degenerate easily to a malignancy.

e) Can be associated with urinary retention.

294.A patient known to has an ovarian tumour suddenly reports abdominal pain,

vomiting and rapid pulse. The following are likely cause.

a) Rupture of the tumour.

b) Sudden infection of the tumour.

c) Massive haemorrhage in the tumour.

d) Torsion of the tumour

e) All of the above.

295.The following factors affect wound healing.

a) Steroid therapy

b) Proper apposition of layers.

c) Immune status.

d) Infection.

e) Cancer.

296.Statements about genital carcinoma.

a) Ca of the corpus rarely associates with hypertension.

b) Ca. of the cervix usually does not spread through the lymphatics.

c) Ovarian cancer can be the best treated by surgery and chemotherapy.

d) Cone biopsy is the best diagnostic procedure in detecting ca. of the corps.

e) Ca. of the corpus first infiltrates the cervix and then myometrium of the corpus.

297.About menopause.

a) The production of progesterone increases.

b) The production of ooestrogen is low.

c) The production of FSH increases.

d) (a), (b), (c) are true.

e) (b), (c) are true.

298.Fill in the blanks.

a) Complicated ovarian tumour is treated by..................................

b) Theca lutein cyst can occur in ........................... pregnancy.

c) Abortion of uterus fibroids can occur in ...................... fibroids.

d) Ectopic pregnancies are associated with..................................... diseases.

e) Necrotizing fAscites is caused by .................................

299.Malaria in pregnancy.

a) Plasmodium Ovale causes hyperparasitaemia.

b) Can present as acute pulmonary congestion.

c) Plasmodium falciparum causes relapses in pregnancy.

d) Plasmodium Ovale causes renal failure in pregnancy.

e) The pigment haemozoin is directly responsible for the fever episodes

300.The following malarial species cause recrudescence of malaria in pregnancy.

a) P. falciparum.

b) P. Ovale

c) P. Vivax

d) P. Inguinale.

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e) P. Malariae.