MCQs for OBGYN 8

 MCQs for OBGYN 8

301.In PMTCT:

a) TRRD means HIV positive mother who has been received Nevirapine.

b) Episiotomy is contraindicated.

c) Dose of Nevirapine is 200 mg for the mother and 0.6 ml for the baby.

d) Rupture of membranes can only be done when indicated.

e) Caesarean Section increases the risk of MTCT.

302.About Nevirapine.

a) It is a NNRTI.

b) Onset of action occurs in 30 min and peck action is reached in 2 hours.

c) Doesn’t cross the placenta.

d) Dose is 200 mg single dose.

e) Single dose is sufficient even if the mother is not delivered after 24 hours of

taking the dose.

303.Recommendations for safer breastfeeding in the context of HIV include:

a) Avoid infections during breastfeeding.

b) Seek immediate treatment for cracked nipples, infant mouth sores.

c) Mixed feeding.

d) a) and b) above are false.

e) All of the above.

304.The following are risk factors to MTCT.

a) APH.

b) PPH.

c) External cephalic version.

d) Cardiotocography.

e) PROM.

305.About multiple pregnancy.

a) There is not significant increase in obstetric complications.

b) Risk of obstetric complications is slightly increased.

c) Perinatal morbidity/mortality is reduced.

d) At 2 years, infant mortality rate of twins is the same as that of singletons.

e) Is common in blacks.

306.In monozygotic twins.

a) One ovum is fertilized for two sperms.

b) Comprises 2/3 of all twins.

c) Dichorionic- diamniotic placentation occurs when cell division occurs in 1st 72

hours of fertilization.

d) Predisposing factors include race and use of fertility induction drugs.

e) Can co-exist with dizygotic twins.

307.Management of multiple pregnancy.

a) Mothers are admitted to the ward early to facilitate quick growth.

b) Haematinic are commonly given to prevent anaemia due to increased demands.

c) A second twin in transverse lie is always delivered by caesarean section.

d) Goal-oriented ANC is unnecessary in multiple pregnancy.

e) Best mode of delivery of twins in breech/cephalic presentation is by caesarean

section

308.Components of essential obstetric care include.

a) Parenteral antibiotics

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b) Parenteral oxytocic drugs.

c) Use of anticonvulsants.

d) Manual removal of placenta.

e) Manual removal of retained products.

309.Comprehensive essential obstetric care includes:

a) Availability of surgical services.

b) Availability of anaesthesia services.

c) Blood transfusion services.

d) Obstetrics skills not needed

e) Traditional birth attendant with surgical skills.

310.The following are true of FIGO’s classification about hypertension in pregnancy.

a) Chronic hypertension.

b) Chronic renal damage with or without hypertension

c) Pre-eclampsia and eclampsia.

d) Superimpose pre-eclampsia.

e) Proteinuric hypertension of pregnancy.

311.The following are true about physiopathology of pre-eclampsia.

a) Impaired trophoblast invasion is the most important event.

b) Impaired trophoblast differentiation can be caused by immulogical abnormalities.

c) SLTf-1 antagonizes the VEGF causing impaired angiogenesis and systemic

endothelial damage.

d) Low PLGF level is a common finding in pregnant women with pre-eclampsia.

e) Today is widely accepted that placental ischemia has not an important role in the

pathogenesis of pre-eclampsia.

312.In the management of pre-eclampsia.

a) Patient with severe pre-eclampsia without symptoms should be managed as

outpatient.

b) Methyldopa is the choice to treat the hypertensive crisis.

c) Antihypertensive treatment can induce foetal weight loss.

d) Conservative management can be attempted in a patient at 36 wks and severe

pre-eclampsia.

e) Difenylhydantoin is better than magnesium sulphate in fits prevention.

313.About APH.

a) Placenta previa is usually associated with local nutritional defects.

b) Abruptio placenta is a common cause of DIC.

c) Two lines are better established to volume replacement.

d) Team work is mandatory.

e) In types I and II vaginal delivery can be attempted, after rupture of the

membranes and engagement of the presenting part.

314.About placenta praevia.

a) Digital examination should be done always to confirm diagnosis.

b) Digital examination should be done under general anaesthesia.

c) In conservative management steroid are not necessary because accelerate foetal

maturity.

d) Abdominal tenderness, uterine contractions, foetal heart rate abnormalities are

common finding.

e) Vasa praevia, abruptio placenta, vulvae varicosities are differential diagnosis.

315.In the management of abruptio placenta

a) Mild abruption can be delivered vaginally.

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b) Moderate abruption in advanced labour (9 cm, station +3) and DIC, should be

delivered by caesarean section due to easier control of bleeding.

c) Severe abruption with intrauterine foetal demise and clotting disorder is always

an indication for caesarean section.

d) Foetal heart tones absent in severe abruptio placenta always mean IUFD.

e) In the Couvelaire uterus conservative management is indicated.

316.About rupture uterus.

a) There is not an important cause of maternal morbidity and mortality in Uganda.

b) Delay in obstructive labour’s diagnosis is the commonest cause.

c) Prevention can be helped improving, nutrition during childhood, vaccination,

education, eliminating poverty, and improving primary health care.

d) Subtotal abdominal hysterectomy is the surgical treatment of choice.

e) Infection doesn’t contraindicate conservative management.

317.Indicators of use of delivery services.

a) Caesarean section as a proportion of all births.

b) Proportion of births in essential obstetric care facilities.

c) Births attended by skilled health personal.

d) Births attended by TBA.

e) All of the above.

318.Regarding neonatal resuscitation.

a) Place infant on cool surface.

b) Dry the baby.

c) Leave on wet linen

d) Suction of nose is before the mouth.

e) Baby is placed with the neck slightly flexed.

319.The copper T 380 A is:

a) An intrauterine device containing 300 mm surface area copper wire around the

stem.

b) Is effective up to 6 years only.

c) Replacement is every 10 years.

d) Causes a foreign body reaction in the uterus.

e) Can be used to cause synaecolysis.

320.The following are possible complications of intrauterine devices:

a) Syncopal attacks.

b) Abnormal menstrual bleeding.

c) Pelvic infection.

d) Perforation of the uterus.

e) Spontaneous expulsion.

321.The following specialized tests are used to assess the semen of an infertile man.

a) Mixed agglutination reaction (MAR) test.

b) Hemizona assay (HZA).

c) Sperm penetration assay (SPA).

d) Hypo osmotic swelling test. (HOS)

e) Immunobead test

322. The following syndromes are associated with male infertility.

a) Kallman’s syndrome.

b) Savage’s syndrome

c) Asherman’s syndrome.

d) Stein Leventhal syndrome.

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e) Sheehan syndrome.

323. The following are steroidal contraceptives.

a) Progestasert.

b) Mirena.

c) Nuva ring

d) Mifepristone.

e) Cyclofem.

324.Vasectomy:

a) Leads to immediate sterility.

b) Can cause impotence.

c) Involve ligation of vasa efferentia.

d) Can complicate scrotal haematoma.

e) Is reversible.

325.Depo-Provera (DMPA).

a) Contains the progesterone medroxyprogesterone caproate.

b) Is a combine injectable contraceptive.

c) Can cause breakthrough bleeding.

d) Is effective for 10 wks.

e) Return to fertility is immediate after terminating its use.

326.Vaginal foaming tablets.

a) Active ingredients are nonoxynol 2 and ethanol.

b) Act by causing endometrial thinning.

c) Are spermicidal

d) Causes a foreign body reaction in de vaginal canal.

e) Are inserted before and after sex.

327.The female condom.

a) Is made of latex

b) Can be warm up to 10 hours before sex.

c) If properly used is more effective than male condom.

d) Can be stored at variable temperature.

e) Has a spermicidal effect.

328.About Chlamydia infection.

a) Most common cause of PID.

b) Causes non-gonococcal urethritis.

c) Doesn’t cause dysuria syndrome.

d) May cause neonatal conjunctivitis.

e) All of the above.

329.Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID).

a) Is a common disease among women and men of reproductive age.

b) Mycobacterium avium is the most common cause.

c) The vagina is most hit.

d) The ovaries are not part of the syndrome.

e) All of the above are false.

330.Criteria for diagnosis of PID.

a) Cervical motion tenderness present.

b) Lower abdominal pain with or without tenderness.

c) Temperature of less than 37.5 oc

d) Decreased ESR.

e) Present of mass in ultrasound scan.

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331.Hospitalization for patient with PID.

a) Pregnancy.

b) Temperature of more than 38oc.

c) Suspected pelvic abscess.

d) Patient request

e) All of the above.

332.Differential diagnosis of PID.

a) Ovulation

b) Cystitis

c) Degenerating myoma.

d) Sickle cell crisis.

e) Irritable bowel syndrome.

333.PID.

a) Hysterectomy may be a mode of treatment

b) Surgery is always indicated.

c) Clindamycin is also used in the treatment.

d) Chronic pelvic pain syndrome is a complication.

e) Infertility is a common complication.

334.Sonographic characteristic of malignant tumour.

a) Absence of fluid in the peritoneum.

b) Thick capsule.

c) Thin capsule.

d) Thin septae.

e) Enlarged lymph nodes.

335.About ovarian tumours.

a) Dysgerminomas are common in the reproductive age group.

b) Serous cyst adenomas contain tissues all the 3rd germ layers.

c) Dermoid cysts are common in the under 10 year’s group.

d) Bilateral tumours have a great risk of malignancy.

e) Always present with Ascites.

336.Germ cell tumour includes.

a) Dysgerminomas.

b) Endodermal sinus tumour.

c) Embryonal carcinoma.

d) Choriocarcinoma.

e) Teratomas.

337.Operatives features suggestive of malignancy.

a) Areas of haemorrhages in the tumour.

b) Large blood vessel in the surface.

c) Bilateral presence.

d) Ascites.

e) Presence of adhesions.

338.Tumour markers in gynaecological practice.

a) CA-125 for ovarian tumours.

b) Alpha- fetoprotein (AFP) for Endodermal sinus tumours.

c) Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) for Dysgerminomas.

d) Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) for non-gestational choriocarcinoma.

e) CA-125 for endometriosis.

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339.Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome.

a) There is right upper quadrant pain.

b) Occurs almost exclusively among women

c) Salpingitis is not included.

d) Viral hepatitis is a differential.

e) N. gonorrhoea and C. trachomatis have been associated.

340.Cause of postmenopausal bleeding.

a) Genital malignancies like ca. cervix.

b) Dysfunctional uterine bleeding.

c) Retained placenta.

d) Hyperplastic endometrium.

e) Senile vaginitis.

341.Benefits of GnRH analogues in uterine fibroids include.

a) Increased in tumour size and growth.

b) Reduce anaemia

c) Reduce vascularity and thus less bleeding during operation.

d) Cosmetic scar and surgery.

e) Case of myomectomy post GnRH treatment.

342.Uterine fibroids can cause infertility through:

a) Tubal obstruction.

b) Abnormal myometrial and endometrial veins.

c) Interference with normal myometrial contractility.

d) Distortion of uterine cavity.

e) All of the above.

343.Criteria for unexplained infertility.

a) Demonstration of ovulation.

b) Tubal patency.

c) Normal sperm-cervical mucus interaction.

d) Normal seminal analysis.

e) None of the above.

344.Ovarian causes of hyperandrogenism include.

a) PCOS.

b) Sertoli- Leydig cell tumour.

c) Hilus cell tumour

d) Luteoma of pregnancy.

e) Hypertecosis.

345.The following factors affect wound healing.

a) Proper apposition of tissues.

b) Immune status of individual.

c) Prolonged use of steroids.

d) Pre-morbid state.

e) Site of incision.

346.The predisposing factors to ward sepsis include the following except.

a) Proper use of prophylactic antibiotics.

b) Use of catheter and bag in post operative patients.

c) Hand washing with soap.

d) Decontaminating formulas.

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e) Early discharge of postoperative patients.

347.The following are risk factors to genital prolapses.

a) Grande multiparous.

b) Third degree perineal tears.

c) Connective tissue defects.

d) Surgeries.

e) Increased intra abdominal pressure.

348.The following are true about cervical carcinoma.

a) Most of the predisposing factors are related with sexual behavior.

b) Is easy preventable and curable when early diagnosis is done.

c) From stage 0 to II b surgical treatment is possible with a high rate of cure.

d) Cervical cytology is the best method to do screening, and the risk for advanced

disease decrease when is done at least once during the life.

e) Advanced colposcopy can predict histological diagnosis.

349.Gestational Trophoblastic Neoplasia. Choose the most appropriate answer.

a) In stage I the disease is confined to the uterus.

b) Can follow normal pregnancy.

c) Can follow an abortion.

d) Has a tumour marker.

e) All the above.

350.Which of following statements is not true in relation to Choriocarcinoma.

a) Most commonly develops after molar pregnancy.

b) The most common site of metastasis is liver.

c) Persistent P.V bleeding is the commonest reason for consultation.

d) There is uterine sub involution.

e) Most lesions begin in uterus.

351.The following are poor prognostic factors in trophoblastic disease for malignant

change.

a) Disease following normal delivery

b) beta-hCG more than 80,000 mIU/ml

c) Disease following an abortion

d) A and C above

e) A and B above .