Reproductive Biology:

 Reproductive Biology:

1. The number of chromosomes in the human somatic cell is:

A. 24.

B. 44.

C. 46.

D. 48.

E. 23.

2. Regarding Oogenesis & ovulation:

A. Primary oocytes are formed after birth until puberty.

B. The 1ST meiotic division is arrested in the diplotene stage until just before

ovulation.

C. Oogenesis is completed in 72 hours.

D. The ova survive for 3 days after ovulation.

E. Ovulation occurs 36 hours after FSH surge.

3. Regarding Fertilization & implantation:

A. Fertilization occurs in the inner third of the fallopian tube.

B. The sperm head penetrates through the corona radiata & zona pellucida

while the tail remains outside.

C. The 2ND meiotic division is completed before fertilization.

D. Implantation occurs at the morula stage.

E. The trophoblast invades the endometrium & differentiate into an outer

cytotrophoblast & an inner cyncytiotrophoblast.

4. The second meiotic division of the oocyte is normally completed:

A. at the stage of the primary follicle.

B. At the stage of the Graafian follicle.

C. In the peritoneal cavity.

D. In the uterus at the time of implantation.

E. After the sperm penetrates the secondary oocyte

5. Physiological changes in the reproductive system include :

A. There is no change in the vagina.

B. The uterus 1st enlarges by hyperplasia then by hypertrophy.

C. There is no change in the cervix.

D. Estrogen has no role in the changes that occur during pregnancy.

E. Lower segment of the uterus will be formed in the 1st trimester.

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Antenatal Care:

1. Sure sign of pregnancy is:

A. Amenorrhea

B. Hegar's sign

C. Nausea and vomiting

D. Auscultation of fetal heart

E. Abdominal distension

2. If your patient is 8 weeks pregnant which one of the following USS measurement is

most useful

A. Crown rump length

B. Biparietal diameter

C. Femur length

D. Placental site

E. Abdominal circumference

3. The following statement are all TRUE about vomiting in pregnancy, EXCEPT:

A. May be cured by admission to hospital

B. Is commonest in the third trimester

C. Associated with multiple pregnancy

D. Is associated with trophoblastic disease

E. Is associated with urinary tract infection

4. First trimester pregnancy may be terminated by

A. Prostaglandin inhibitor

B. Anti-progesterone

C. β sympathomimetic agonist

D. Synthetic estrogen

E. Medroxy-progesterone

5. The following ultrasonic measurements may be used to confirm or establish

gestational age:

A. Crown rump length

B. Nuchal pad thickening

C. Amniotic fluid volume

D. Yolk sac volume

E. Biophysical profile

6. Antenatal booking investigations include all of the following, EXCEPT:

A. Complete blood count

B. Blood sugar

C. Hepatitis screening

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D. Toxoplasmosis

E. Thyroid function

7. An Ultrasound in the 1st trimester of pregnancy is done for

A. Placental localization

B. Detecting of fetal weight

C. Assessment of amniotic fluid volume

D. Detection of fetal breathing

E. Dating of the pregnancy

8. A serum progesterone value less than 5ng/ml can exclude the diagnosis of viable

pregnancy with a certainty of:

A. 20%

B. 40%

C. 60%

D. 80%

E. 100%

9. In normal pregnancy, the value of β-hCG doubles every:

A. 2 days.

B. 4 days.

C. 8 days.

D. 10 days.

E. 14 days.

10. The β-hCG curve in maternal serum in a normal pregnancy peaks at:

A. 6 weeks of pregnancy.

B. 8 weeks of pregnancy.

C. 10 weeks of pregnancy.

D. 14 weeks of pregnancy.

E. 18 weeks of pregnancy.

11. The followings are considered normal symptoms of pregnancy EXCEPT:

A. Backache due to an increased lumbar lordosis.

B. Lower abdominal pain and groin pain due to stretch of round ligaments.

C. Visual disturbance.

D. Calf pain due to muscle spasm.

E. Increased vaginal discharge.

12. A woman in early pregnancy is worried because of several small raised nodules on

areola of both breasts. There are no other findings. Your immediate management

should be:

A. Reassurance after thorough examination.

B. Needle aspiration of the nodules.

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C. Surgical removal of the areola.

D. Mammography.

E. Radical mastectomy.

13. The source of progesterone that maintains the pregnancy during early 1ST

trimester:

A. Placenta.

B. Corpus luteum.

C. Corpus albicans.

D. Adrenal glands.

E. Endometrium.

14. During normal pregnancy, a weight gain anticipated. The average weight gain is

approximately:

A. 5-10 kg.

B. 10-15 kg.

C. 15-20 kg.

D. 20-30 kg.

E. 30-40 kg

15. Counseling of a pregnant patient during early prenatal care should include

detection of & information on:

A. Smoking.

B. Alcohol abuse.

C. Drug abuse.

D. Avoiding infections.

E. All of the above.

16. Ultrasound examination used for:

A. Fetal weight.

B. Presence of multiple gestation.

C. Whether abdominal masses are cystic or solid.

D. Placental position.

E. All of the above.

17. Which of the following medications, when given before & during pregnancy may

help to protect neural tube defects?

A. Vitamin B6.

B. Iron.

C. Folic acid.

D. Zinc.

E. Magnesium

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18. Which of the following is/are needed by women in increased amount during

pregnancy?

A. Iron.

B. Folic acid.

C. Protein.

D. Calcium.

E. All of the above.

19. Often, an increase in vaginal discharge may be noted during pregnancy, It may be:

A. Bacterial.

B. Caused by Trichomonas.

C. Caused by Candidiasis.

D. Physiological.

E. All of the above.

20. The following measures are usually performed during a routine antenatal visit for

a healthy uncomplicated pregnancy at 36 weeks gestations' EXCEPT:

A. Symphysis-fundal height.

B. Maternal blood pressure.

C. Maternal weight.

D. Mid-steam urine specimen (MSU) for culture & sensitivity.

E. Listening to the fetal heart.

21. Which of the following is NOT a presumptive symptom/sign of pregnancy:

A. Cessation of menstruation.

B. Quickening.

C. Nausea & vomiting.

D. Breast changes.

E. Darkening of the skin on the palms of the hands.

22. Probable sign of pregnancy include:

A. Detection of fetal movement.

B. Enlargement of the abdomen.

C. X-ray demonstrating a fetus.

D. Lower abdominal cramps.

E. Nausea in the morning

23. The softening of the cervical isthmus that occurs early in gestation is called:

A. Hegar's sign.

B. Chadwick's sign.

C. Braxton Hick's contraction.

D. Von fernwald's sign.

E. Cullen's sign.

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24. During early pregnancy, a pelvic examination may reveal that one adnexia is

slightly enlarged. This is most likely due to:

A. A parovarian cyst.

B. Fallopian tube hypertrophy.

C. Ovarian neoplasm.

D. Follicular cyst.

E. Corpus luteal cyst.

25. Booking investigations include all the following, EXCEPT :

A. Liver function test.

B. Glucose challenge test.

C. CBC.

D. US.

E. Toxoplasmosis.

26. Antenatal care can prevent all the following complications, EXCEPT :

A. Anemia due to iron deficiency or folic acid deficiency.

B. UTI of pyelonephritis.

C. Macrosomia.

D. Preterm labor.

E. Rh immunization.

28. High alpha feto protein found in? EXCEPT

A. IUFD

B. Multiple pregnancy

C. Some Ovarian Cancer

D. Trisomy 21

E. Neural tube defect

29. Nuchal translucency is used is a marker used for:

A. NTD.

B. Trisomies

30. Of the following laboratory studies, which test might be done routinely at booking:

A. Electrolytes.

B. Urinary estriol.

C. Serum glumatic-oxaloacetic transaminase.

D. Hemoglobin.

E. FTA-ABS.

31. The following drugs cross the placenta to the fetus, EXCEPT :

A. Heparin

B. Tetracycline

C. Warfarin

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D. Diazepam

E. Aspirin

32. Which of these drugs don’t cross the placenta?

A. Heparin

B. Warfarin

C. Tetracycline

D. Degoxin

E. None of the above

33. Hypoplasia & yellow discoloration of the primary teeth has occurred in infants

whose pregnant mothers were treated with drug:

A. Sulphonaudes.

B. Penicillin.

C. Streptomycin.

D. Dihydrostretomycin.

E. Tetracycline.