MCQs Clinical cases uncovered

 MCQs

1 A 23-year-old nulliparous woman is considering

changing from the combined oral contraceptive (COC) to a

progestogen only implant.

For each situation, choose the single option you feel is

most correct.

a. Progestogen only implant is not as effective as the

COC as it does not inhibit ovulation

b. Bleeding will be predictable, unlike the COC

c. The risk of deep venous thrombosis is decreased in

COC users

d. The progestogen only implant protects against

sexually transmitted infections (STIs)

e. A common reason for discontinuing progestogen

only methods is unpredictable bleeding

2 A 49-year-old woman presents to her GP with hot

flushes and night sweats and wonders if she is going

through the menopause.

Which of the following statements is the single best

answer?

a. A menstrual history will not be useful in the

assessment of this patient

b. A serum follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) level of

70 IU/L is diagnostic of the menopause

c. Herbal remedies can safely be used alongside

prescribed medication

d. Oestrogen levels consistently <0.11 mmol/L indicate

ovarian failure

e. Combined hormone replacement therapy (HRT)

consists of two different oestrogens

3 A 79-year-old patient with chronic obstructive airways

disease and ischaemic heart disease presents with a 2-year

history of ‘something coming down’. Her body mass index

(BMI) is 38 and she smokes 15 cigarettes a day.

Which of the following statements is the single best

answer?

a. Your consultation should include review of her

respiratory symptoms and smoking

b. A Cusco ’ s speculum should be used for vaginal

examination

c. Pelvic floor exercises should be performed on a

weekly basis

d. Surgical management should be considered as first

line treatment

e. A ring pessary is unlikely to be useful for this patient

because of her comorbidity

4 In the normal uterine cervix, which of the following

statements is the single best answer?

a. Stratification of the squamous epithelium results

from maturation and differentiation

b. The squamo - columnar junction is sited at the

external cervical os

c. Squamous metaplasia results from human

papillomavirus (HPV) infection

d. A normal cervical appearance on examination

excludes a Chlamydia infection

e. Cervical ectopy usually requires treatment with

cryotherapy

Obstetrics and Gynaecology: Clinical Cases Uncovered.

By M. Cruickshank and A. Shetty. Published 2009 by Blackwell

Publishing. ISBN 978-1-4051-8671-1.MCQs 173

PART 3: SELF-ASSESSMENT

5 A 28-year-old nulliparous woman is referred to

colposcopy with a moderately dyskaryotic smear.

Which of the following statements is the single best

answer?

a. Sixty per cent of women with moderate dyskaryosis

will have abnormal vaginal bleeding

b. Referral was inappropriate as she has a low risk of

having high grade cervical intraepithelial neoplasia

(CIN)

c. A diagnostic biopsy must be taken before treatment

with cold coagulation

d. Most women require a general anaesthetic for the

treatment of CIN

e. She should be offered HPV vaccination to treat her

abnormal smear

6 A 54-year-old woman presents with postmenopausal

bleeding after the menopause at age 50. She had a

right-sided mastectomy and lymph node sampling 2 years

previously for breast cancer and is currently on tamoxifen.

Which of the following statements is the single best

answer?

a. Tamoxifen is an oestrogen antagonist and reduces

the risk of endometrial cancer

b. Thickened endometrium with cystic spaces on TV

scan suggests endometrial cancer

c. She should have a speculum examination to identify

any cervical pathology

d. She should be investigated by an outpatient

endometrial biopsy

e. The mostly likely cause of her symptoms is

metastatic breast cancer

7 A 75-year-old woman presents with a 10-year history of

vulval itch and irritation. This has failed to respond to

avoiding irritants and topical emollients. On examination,

the skin is thickened and white round the introitus and

perianal skin with superficial ulceration at the fourchette.

Which is the single most likely cause of her symptoms?

a. Vulval vestibulitis

b. Vulvovaginal thrush

c. Bartholin ’ s abscess

d. Lichen sclerosus

e. Genital warts

8 A 33-year-old para 2 is admitted as an emergency with

rapid onset of acute right iliac fossa pain. On admission,

she has tenderness and guarding in her right iliac fossa.

Her temperature is 37.8°C, her pulse is 92beats/minute

and her blood pressure 115/75mmHg, her white cell

count and neutrophil count are both raised.

Which of the following is the single most likely

diagnosis?

a. Endometriosis

b. Torsion of an ovarian cyst

c. Threatened miscarriage

d. Unruptured ectopic pregnancy

e. Mittelschmerz

9 In the investigation of a 32-year-old para 2 an incidental

finding of a pelvic mass is made.

Which of the following statements is the single best

answer?

a. Pregnancy needs to be excluded

b. CT scan is the imaging method of choice

c. Ovarian cancer is the most likely diagnosis

d. Premenopausal status increases her risk of the mass

being malignant

e. The diagnosis is unlikely to be fibroids as she is

asymptomatic

10 A 36-year-old woman complains of vaginal discharge

and a high vaginal swab shows bacterial vaginosis.

Which of the following statements is the single best

answer?

a. This is caused by a Trichomonas vaginalis infection

b. This is a sexually transmitted infection

c. This may have been caused by her intrauterine

device

d. She may have noticed a fishy smell

e. Her partner should be treated with penicillin174 Part 3: Self-assessment

PART 3: SELF-ASSESSMENT

11 A 23-year-old woman presents to her GP with rapid

onset of severe vulval pain. On examination, her vulva is

very swollen and tender.

Which of the following statements is the single best

answer?

a. A full sexual history should be taken initially to

make a diagnosis

b. Examination is not essential as a good history and

self - sampling will lead to the diagnosis

c. A tender fluctuant swelling over the mons pubis

suggests a Bartholin ’ s abscess

d. A herpes infection may be complicated by acute

urinary retention

e. A skin biopsy may be required to make the diagnosis

12 An 18-year-old girl presents with a 3-month history of

recurrent postcoital bleeding. She denies any recent sexual

activity.

Which of the following statements is the single best

answer?

a. In view of her history, she does not need a

Chlamydia test

b. She should be offered a cervical screening test

c. You should ask about her current method of

contraception and its usage

d. You do not need to offer her a chaperone if the

doctor is female

e. She should be referred for colposcopy

13 In the management of a woman with dysfunctional

uterine bleeding.

Which of the following statements is the single best

answer?

a. Mirena intrauterine system (IUS) is a recognized

treatment

b. An endometrial biopsy is not usually recommended

in a woman aged 45 years

c. Hysterectomy is often recommended as first line

therapy

d. Following endometrial ablation, women can

discontinue their contraception

e. Gonadotrophin releasing hormone (GnRH)

analogues can be used for long - term management

14 A 32-year-old woman is being investigated for primary

infertility. She has not used any contraception for the last

18 months and her normal menstrual cycle is κ = 5–7/35.

Which of the following statements is the single best

answer?

a. The prevalence of infertility in the UK population is

1 in 17

b. You should check her serum progesterone on day 14

to detect ovulation

c. You need to check her serum testosterone level

because of her cycle length

d. Her rubella immunity should be checked

e. First line investigations include laparoscopy and dye

test to check tubal patency

15 Her partner is aged 35 and has no previous children or

significant past medical history.

Which of the following statements is the single best

answer?

a. A semen analysis should be performed only if his

partner ’ s infertility investigations are normal

b. The normal reference range for minimum sperm

count with ejaculate is >30,000,000

c. The presence of small testicular size and azoospermia

is suggestive of an obstructive cause

d. The finding of azoospermia suggests that you should

arrange to repeat his semen analysis

e. The finding of azoospermia suggests that you should

perform a cystic fibrosis screen

16 A 37-year-old para 2 who is 36 weeks pregnant

presents to the day assessment ward with fresh bleeding

per vaginum.

What feature on history and examination would make

placenta praevia an unlikely diagnosis?

a. Transverse lie of the fetus

b. A tender hypertonic uterus

c. Her first two deliveries having been by caesarean

section

d. Stable maternal condition

e. Good fetal movements, stable fetal condition (e.g.

normal fetal heart)MCQs 175

PART 3: SELF-ASSESSMENT

17 A 24-year-old para 0 is 29 weeks pregnant and

presents with leaking clear fluid per vaginum. Her uterus is

soft and she is not in labour. The baby is in a cephalic

position with the head four-fifths palpable per abdomen,

and the fetal heart is regular. Preterm prelabour rupture of

membranes is diagnosed.

What would you not do?

a. Perform a vaginal swab

b. Administer a course of steroids for fetal lung

maturity

c. Take bloods for full blood count (including white

cell count) and C - reactive protein

d. Start antibiotics (erythromycin)

e. Induce labour as soon as possible

18 Which of these is not a risk factor for atonic

postpartum haemorrhage?

a. A long labour with oxytocin augmentation

b. High parity

c. Multiple pregnancy

d. Epidural for pain relief

e. Placental abruption

19 Which of these is not a symptom or sign of impending

eclampsia?

a. Headaches

b. Epigastric pain

c. Frequency of micturition

d. Blurring of vision

e. Hyper - reflexia

20 Which of these is a routinely offered antenatal

screening test in the UK?

a. Chorionic villus sampling

b. Amniocentesis

c. Screening for HBV infection

d. Screening for group B streptococcus

e. Screening for toxoplasmosis

21 Which of these is not a risk factor for venous

thrombosis?

a. Hyperemesis gravidarum

b. Malposition of the fetus

c. Smoking

d. Postpartum haemorrhage

e. Puerperal sepsis

f. Increasing maternal age

22 Which of the following is a relative contraindication for

an external cephalic version?

a. Previous caesarean section

b. Multiparity

c. Extended breech presentation

d. >38 weeks ’ gestation

e. Maternal shoe size 3

23 Which of these are not a sign of scar rupture or

dehiscence with a vaginal birth after caesarean section

(VBAC)?

a. Fresh bleeding per vaginum

b. Tense and hypertonic uterus

c. Scar tenderness

d. Maternal tachycardia

e. Fetal heart deceleration

24 Components of the cervical Bishop’s score.

Which is the odd one out?

a. Station of the fetal head

b. Position of the fetal head

c. Cervical dilatation

d. Length of the cervix

e. Consistency of the cervix176 Part 3: Self-assessment

PART 3: SELF-ASSESSMENT

25 Which of the following is a complication of

pre-eclampsia?

a. Fetal macrosomia

b. Pulmonary odema

c. Prelabour preterm rupture of membranes

d. Polyhydramnios

e. Fetal malposition

26 Which of these statements about twin pregnancies is

not true?

a. All dichorionic pregnancies are dizygotic

b. A monochorionic placenta is only seen with

monozygotic twins

c. Chorionicity can be diagnosed on scan in >98% of

pegnancies in the first trimester

d. Twin – twin transfusion syndrome is seen with

monochorionic twins

e. Chorionicity not zygosity is an important

determinant of risk with twin pregnancies

27 Which of these is not usually associated with an

increased risk of hyperemsis gravidarum?

a. Molar pregnancy

b. Multiple pregnancy

c. Previous history of hyperemesis

d. First trimester of pregnancy

e. Increasing maternal age

28 Which one of these is not an option for pain relief in

the first stage of labour?

a. TENS

b. Entonox

c. Epidural

d. Pudendal block

e. Morphine

29 With which of these maternal infections is there no risk

of intrapartum transmission to the fetus?

a. Hepatitis B

b. HIV

c. Chlamydia

d. Hepatitis C

e. Rubella

30 Which of the following help with prenatal screening

for Down’s syndrome?

a. Maternal age

b. Fetal nuchal thickness

c. Mid - trimester maternal serum screening with bHCG

and alpha - fetoprotein levels

d. Acetylcholinesterase estimation in the amniotic fluid

e. The integrated first and second trimester screening

Answer for Clinical Cases Uncovered

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